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December 2011 – Q1 (i)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › December 2011 – Q1 (i)

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • November 27, 2014 at 9:36 am #213701
    HyeMoon
    Member
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    Based on the answer,

    1. Taxation
    Year 1 2 3 4
    Profits before tax (2,201) 20,007 80,664 114,310
    Tax allowable depreciation (20,000) (20,000) (20,000) (20,000)
    Profit/(loss) after depreciation (22,201) 7 60,664 94,310
    Taxable profits 0 0 38,470 94,310
    Taxation (20%) 0 0 (7,694) (18,862)

    In 3rd year, there is an amount of 38,470 of taxable profit, why is this figure used instead of 60,664?

    2. Investment
    In year 4, there is investment released of 450,000, why is this here and how to get the figure from?

    3. Working capital

    In the first year for working capital is calculated 3,600 (40,000 x 9%). Why is it using 9% to calculate the first year?

    Thanks Sir

    November 27, 2014 at 11:19 am #213777
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54700
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    1. Because of the loss brought forward from the first year.

    2. The second paragraph of the questions tells this.

    3. 40,000 is needed immediately (time 0). The question says that it increases in line with inflation, so an extra 9% x 40,000 is needed at time 1.

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