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In Dec 2011 Kaplan mock , how is vc 1/3 of total unit cost when fc are being charge 200% of total unit cost? Q4 part a
Sorry, but I do not have the 2011 Kaplan Mock!
(I hope you do realise that the real exam this time will be a different format and will have two sections – one with multiple choice questions)
Yes I do realize that, but the part of question is 3 products ego bling and out have total unit cost respectively = 18 , 24 , 30 , fixed manufacturing oh are absorbed into unit costs by charge of 200% of VC so in the solution VC is being calculated by 1/3 of the total unit cost i.e 1/3 of 18 and so on , what would be the logic behind it ?
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