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EPS bonus issue – confused over example

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › EPS bonus issue – confused over example

  • This topic has 7 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by AvatarMikeLittle.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 7, 2014 at 1:45 pm #208234
    AvatarSarah
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 23
    • ☆

    Hello,

    My understanding is that Bonus Issue shares are deemed as existing on day one of the period.

    Whilst working through Example 2, page 124 in Chapter 21 of the course notes I am confused.

    The answer states:
    2,000,000 shares for 6months
    5,000,000 shares for 2months
    6,428,571 shares for 4 months

    But surely the bonus issue of 1428571 shares should exist for the full 12 months, therefore the answer I got was:

    3428571 shares for 6months
    6428572 shares for 6months

    Could you clarify where I am going wrong?

    Many thanks
    Sarah

    November 7, 2014 at 4:30 pm #208260
    AvatarMikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23368
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    By following rule 1 in the course notes, you will find that, by multiplying all prior periods this year by the bonus fraction, the application of the fraction will have the same effect as ensuring the position that the bonus shares existed throughout the year.

    The multiplication by that bonus fraction does it automatically whereas trying it your way is going to get you in all sorts of trouble

    Reread the notes and then try the example doing it my way. But reread, and reread again, those rules VERY carefully.

    Multiply
    ALL
    PRIOR PERIODS
    THIS YEAR
    by the bonus fraction

    Understand? No confusion? Well, about 75% of the students that I teach still get that step wrong even though I emphasise it over and over again

    See how you get on! And come back to me if you’re still struggling

    November 7, 2014 at 5:01 pm #208266
    AvatarSarah
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 23
    • ☆

    Thank you for that.

    Yes, I get that now. Using the Bonus fraction has the effect of the bonus issue existing all year.

    I have also been using Kaplan text and it makes no mention of this at all.

    Thanks.
    Sarah

    November 7, 2014 at 5:05 pm #208267
    AvatarMikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23368
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Well, that’s ok then

    But the offer still stands – come back to me if you need to

    November 7, 2014 at 7:45 pm #208315
    Avatarkeke
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 34
    • ☆☆

    I attempted this question, however, I used different workings to arrive at the answer. Is it correct to do the following:

    To find current EPS:

    2,000,000 * 6/12 = 1,000,000
    5,000,000 * 6/12 = 2,500,000

    Bonus issue 2:7 = 3,500,000*2/7= 1,000,000

    # of shares = 1,000,000+2,500,000+1,000,000= 4,500,000

    EPS = 600,000/4,500,000 = 13.3c

    To find comparative EPS:

    Bonus issue based on the number of shares held in prior year = 2,000,000*2/7 = 571,429

    # of shares = 2,000,000 + 571,429= 2,571,429

    EPS = 0.16 * 2,000,000/2,571,429 = 12.4c

    November 9, 2014 at 5:30 pm #208649
    AvatarMikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23368
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, that’s ok. I much prefer my layout but, so long as you keep arriving at the same answer as I and the approved publishers, then that’s fine

    November 19, 2014 at 1:41 am #211159
    Avatarkeke
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 34
    • ☆☆

    Okay thanks.

    November 19, 2014 at 4:36 pm #211294
    AvatarMikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23368
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You’re welcome

  • Author
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