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P and L intra group inventory and goods in transit

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › P and L intra group inventory and goods in transit

  • This topic has 11 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 12 posts - 1 through 12 (of 12 total)
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  • October 23, 2014 at 10:18 am #205551
    rameez13031988
    Participant
    • Topics: 42
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    A prep Q in bpp includes an adj for intra group goods in transit where parent despatches goods cost 80 at an invoiced value of 100. Goods r received by the sub in next accountig period… it is treated by deducting the cost to group of inventory from the COS what’s the reason for this treatment? And also there is no deduction of invoiced value of 100 from COS it is deducted from revenue only why?

    October 23, 2014 at 10:29 am #205556
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    “And also there is no deduction of invoiced value of 100 from COS it is deducted from revenue only why?”

    Because it isn’t yet included within the subsidiary’s cost of sales – because the subsidiary has not yet received nor accounted for these goods

    Personally, I would have accelerated the goods into the subsidiary, then cancelled the intra-group trade of 100 (Dr revenue, Cr cost of sales) then accounted for the additional pup on these goods in transit (Dr cost of sales, Cr group inventory) then cancelled the receivable / payable current accounts – presumably they now reconcile

    BPP do it one way, I go the long way round!

    October 23, 2014 at 7:55 pm #205696
    rameez13031988
    Participant
    • Topics: 42
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    But why cost to group of inventory is deducted from the COS what’s the reason for this treatment?

    October 24, 2014 at 8:24 am #205781
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    How can I sell goods to myself? That would be nonsense if we didn’t cancel revenue against cost of sales by the value of the intra-group trade and then add back the pup (how can you recognise a profit simply by transferring goods from one pocket to another?)

    October 27, 2014 at 7:34 pm #206289
    rameez13031988
    Participant
    • Topics: 42
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    Please clear me on this point first that was we deduct PUPs from profit by adding it in COS i think this was enough to take unrealized profit out so why also the sale and cos fig are adjusted isnt it double deduction of PUP?

    October 28, 2014 at 8:01 am #206342
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The purpose of consolidation is to present the results of a group of companies as though they were a single entity.

    How can ABC company sell goods to ABC company?

    That’s why the value of the transaction is eliminated from both revenue and from cost of sales

    But the selling company has also recognised a profit which still sits in the value of the inventory of the buying company.

    That’s why we have to make the pup adjustment

    Better?

    October 28, 2014 at 11:29 am #206382
    rameez13031988
    Participant
    • Topics: 42
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    understood why revenue is adjusted and also why pup is adjusted but why is cost of sales adjusted with the vale of sale price?

    October 28, 2014 at 11:58 am #206389
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because I can’t buy from myself in the same way that I can’t sell to myself. Just cancel the intra-group sale. Ok with that?

    Now, think about the inventory valuation. It’s in the hands of the buyer and they have valued it at cost to them. But that cost to them includes the profit recognised by the seller. So we need to eliminate that profit.

    Summary? Eliminate the intra-group sale and purchase.

    Then eliminate the unrealised profit from the stock valuation

    OK now?

    October 29, 2014 at 2:05 pm #206576
    rameez13031988
    Participant
    • Topics: 42
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    you mean to say that the purchases fig. in COS is not valid so we r adjusting COS so that the purchases fig. is adjusted right?

    October 30, 2014 at 7:06 am #206690
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No – it’s the closing inventory that is incorrectly stated. The buying company will have valued their inventory at the lower of cost and net realisable value. But “cost” for the buying company includes that profit element that was charged by the selling company and, so far as the group is concerned, group inventory should be valued at the lower of cost and net realisable value.

    Now, a BIG step! Do you accept that if I take $10,000 out of revenue and $10,000 out of purchases / cos, then that has the effect of eliminating the intra-group sale and purchase?

    OK, so now forget that transaction and move on into other areas.

    – reconcile the current accounts

    – time apportion the subsidiary’s results where we acquired the subsidiary this year

    – account for dividends payable and receivable

    – and ……. oh yes! There’s a pup in the closing inventory and that means that our group closing inventory is overvalued. That, in turn, means that our cost of sales is understated and out gross profit is correspondingly overstated

    So let’s make the pup adjustment to the closing inventory value

    Dr Cost of Sales by reducing Closing Inventory on the Profit or Loss thereby increasing cost of sales and reducing profit

    Cr Closing Inventory on the statement of financial position thereby reducing assets in line with the reduction of profits

    Is that better?

    November 7, 2014 at 1:37 pm #208232
    rameez13031988
    Participant
    • Topics: 42
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    yes understood… thumbs up to u

    November 7, 2014 at 4:25 pm #208259
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You’re welcome

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