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kindly help

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA BT – FIA FBT › kindly help

  • This topic has 8 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by Ken Garrett.
Viewing 9 posts - 1 through 9 (of 9 total)
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  • August 3, 2014 at 10:34 am #180597
    Mahrukh
    Participant
    • Topics: 26
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆☆

    If price elasticity is 1, revenue should stay the same right? However, if demand is 100 at a price of 20, revenue would be 2000. If price is reduced by 50% as a result demand increases by 50% elasticity should be 1, but the revenue is not the same, 10*150 = 1500.

    August 3, 2014 at 2:11 pm #180605
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Dear Members:

    Please advise how i can download Open tuition video lectures when i can access internet & view them during my free tym without using internet.

    Please advise.

    August 3, 2014 at 3:42 pm #180616
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    elasticity = %change in demand / %change in price

    and you are given 50% change in price causes 50% change in demand, thus:

    50%/50%=1

    … note that calculation of ACTUAL NUMBERS:

    % change = amount of change/initial value

    hope it helps

    August 3, 2014 at 4:40 pm #180622
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10595
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The problem with your example is that elasticity varies constantly along demand curves, so when you vary prices and demand by 50% you are moving to a part of the curve where the elasticity is no longer 1.

    Even taking a very small change will not give the same revenue. For example, say a price change of +1%:

    Original price = 20, new = 20.2
    Original demand = 100, new = 99

    Revenue = 99 x 20.2 = 1999.80

    A price decrease of 1%:

    New price = 19.80, new demand = 101

    Revenue = 1999.80 [both results v close to 2,000]

    Both are very close to the original.

    Say elasticity = 2 (price sensitive)

    Price increase of 1% to 20.2 would produce a fall in volume of 2% to 98

    Revenue would now be 1,980.

    Price decrease of 1% to 19.8 would produce a rise in volume to 102

    Revenue = 2202.

    So for a price elasticity of demand of greater than 2, you can increase revenue by decreasing price.

    August 3, 2014 at 5:52 pm #180628
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Dear Gromit:

    was my answer correct?

    August 3, 2014 at 8:58 pm #180644
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10595
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Your answer was correct and defined elasticity correctly, but perhaps didn’t answer the original question.

    August 4, 2014 at 5:33 am #180661
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    yes.. i agree …. thank u … 🙂

    August 4, 2014 at 9:48 am #180689
    Mahrukh
    Participant
    • Topics: 26
    • Replies: 38
    • ☆☆

    So its not necessary that unit elasticity will give same revenue and an elasticity of more than 1 will lead to increased revenue, right?
    Thanks.

    August 4, 2014 at 11:06 am #180728
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10595
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    At unit elasticity, revenue does not change for a small change in price – but the change has to be very small as unit elasticity only exists at one point on the demand curve.

    If elasticity >1, lowering the price will produce a disporportionately large increase in volume so revenue will increase. (Raising the rpice would cause volume to fall off quickly and revenue would fall.)

    If elasticity < 1, lowerng the price will have a small effect on volume, so revenue would decrease. Similarly, raising the price will not much affect volume and revenue would increase

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