When we estimate F.V. of a liability, we are given three factors relative to risk: 1. Risk adjustment – uncertainty about cash flows 6% 2. Risk-free rate of Gov. bonds 4% 3. Entity’s non-performance risk 2%
We discount the cash flows using 4%+2%. Can you explain more about why we use 2 and 3 without considering 1. And if 1 risk is not 6%, any indication we should use the lower or higher one?
Am I not correct in saying that 1 is merely the combination of 2 + 3?
If we know the risk adjustment arising from the uncertainty of the cash flows, would we not use that. And is that risk adjustment not merely the combination of the two component elements?