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ias 39 financial instruments

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › ias 39 financial instruments

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by MikeLittle.
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  • May 6, 2014 at 12:16 pm #167624
    kerri
    Member
    • Topics: 132
    • Replies: 240
    • ☆☆☆

    Hi Mike

    For assets measured at fair value are they subject to impairment testing?

    Also for pass paper 12/2005 Ambush: it states that IFRS 9 requires loans and receivables to be measured at amortised cost using interest rate method. what does this mean?

    For part C.:
    question:
    Ambush is reviewing the accounting treatment of its buildings. the company uses revaluation model for its buildings. The buildings had originally cost $10m on 1/12/2003 and has useful economic life of 20yrs. they are being dep at straight line basis to an nil residual value. The buildings were revalued downwards on 30/11/2004 to $8m which was the buildings recoverable amount. At 30/11/2005 the value of the buildings had risen to $11m which is to be involved in the financial statments. The company is unsure how to treat this?

    I dont understand the reversal of impairment. do you always divide the impairment loss from last year by the amount of years left?

    in 2004 cost is $10m dep is $0.5 impairment loss is 1.5 and carrying amount is $8
    in 2005 the cost is $8,i initally thought the depreciation would be the $ 0.5as this is straight line basis? Also I would thought there would be a gain of ( 11-7.58= 3.42 that goes to revaluation surplus which increases the OCI CR. I dont understand why they reverse the impairment from 2004 to 2005.

    thanks alot for your help

    May 6, 2014 at 3:36 pm #167650
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I believe that I’m correct in saying “Yes, they are subject to impairment testing”

    “measured at amortised cost using interest rate method” means arriving at a present value using the effective rate of interest as reduced by the actual interest paid

    re Ambush, surely the depreciation in 2005 is $8m divided by the remaining 19 years of estimated useful life and not $0.5m as you have proposed

    The reversal of the previous impairment should, in my view, be the straight-forward reversal of the impairment but not to a level greater than if would have been if we had not impaired in the first place

    Does that help?

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