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An Accrual/Prepayment problem

Forums › FIA Forums › FA2 Maintaining Financial Records Forums › An Accrual/Prepayment problem

  • This topic has 6 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by mansoor.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • April 16, 2014 at 9:51 am #165429
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Draft accounts show a loss of 1486.

    the draft accounts did not include an accrual of 1625 and a prepayment of 834. Accounts were adjusted to reflect the accrual and the prepayment. what was the profit/loss after the inclusion of the adjustments.

    ——————————-

    the answer is 2277 loss (1486+1625-834)
    ——————————-

    my question is as follows:

    when the question says “did not include an accrual of”…to me it means that the entries were not reversed. In other words, when the accrual was created, the entry made was

    Dr Exp
    Cr Accrual

    so, inclusion of an accrual wd mean clearing the accrual account by

    Dr Accrual
    Cr Exp

    which implies a decrease in the expenses.

    similar argument for prepayments.

    ——————————————-

    why do i think these are to be reversal entries?

    because when we are booking an accrual, we are doing the following entry:

    Dr. Exp
    Cr. Accrual.

    so, its IMPOSSIBLE for the expense not have been included in the expense head.

    so,, how can anyone forget to include an accrual, when the entry above ensures that the expense has been booked?

    or does “not including an accrual” simply means that the accrual entry was never made?

    am i making sense??

    reagrds

    April 16, 2014 at 11:01 am #165431
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No – you are reading the question wrong.

    Not including an accrual simply means that at the end of the year we have forgotten to make an accrual (something that is very common in real life).

    We should make the accrual, which will mean a higher expense and therefore a lower profit (or in this case a bigger loss).

    April 16, 2014 at 2:40 pm #165458
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    ok. so

    not making the accrual means the

    dr exp
    cr accrual

    entry has not been made.

    correct?

    April 16, 2014 at 3:01 pm #165460
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes.

    April 16, 2014 at 3:17 pm #165461
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Ok….this is clear…. thank u!!

    and i have also understood another point:

    that in case of accruals not being recorded, the profits will go up, because you have not received the invoices yet bla bla.

    and in the case of prepayments, the profits will go down as the expense for the next period have also been recorded in the current period.

    correct?

    April 16, 2014 at 4:29 pm #165464
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Sort of, but I do not like the way you are wording it.

    If an accrual has not been recorded, then the profit will be higher than it should be. The correct profit will be lower once the accrual has been entered.

    The other way round for prepayments.

    April 16, 2014 at 4:38 pm #165472
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    yes… i agree my wording was rather shoddy. and i will be more clear in the future.

    it seems accountants and lawyers are the same breed when it comes to wording…i do try tho…:)

    thank you

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