Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Ridag Co Q1 June 2012
- This topic has 7 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 5, 2013 at 3:38 pm #144626
Hi John
Why is the before-tax weighted avg cost of capital 12% used for EAC and after-tax 7% used for NPV.November 6, 2013 at 4:25 pm #144776It is because part (b) says to ignore tax!
November 28, 2014 at 4:51 pm #214159Hello
I am confused about the inflation of sales price
Have they doubled it in the second year and there after?November 28, 2014 at 5:31 pm #214163The inflation is per annum, and so at time 2 there is 2 years inflation. At time 3 there is 3 years inflation, and so on.
Thus is always the case !February 6, 2016 at 3:07 pm #299499Hello,
In part (b), when calculating the equivalent annual costs of the machines, why is the present value of the cash flows divided by the cumulative discount factors rather than just by the number of years for each machine?February 6, 2016 at 4:30 pm #299517It is because of the timing of the flows.
You must watch my free lecture on replacement, because the reasoning for how we calculate the EAC is explained in great detail in the lecture (and I cannot possibly type out the whole lecture here 🙂 )Our free lectures are a complete course for Paper F9 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
February 6, 2016 at 7:21 pm #299536Will do. Thanks 🙂
February 7, 2016 at 7:51 am #299574No problem. If there is anything you are still unsure about the rule for calculating the EAC after watching the lecture, then do ask again.
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