Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Q Rose (6/11)
- This topic has 9 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by MikeLittle.
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- November 3, 2013 at 4:37 pm #144455
In the bpp ansewr they havent made a separate foreign exchange reserve and have just taken the gains/losses to Group Retained Earnings,is this acceptable in the exam?
November 6, 2013 at 5:04 pm #144792I believe it is – that’s what I would have done
November 9, 2013 at 5:32 pm #145193Dear Mike,
I don’t understand the calculation of “Acquisition of further interest” part in Working 1.
Especially what is “Transfer to equity 10/30”? what is 10/30? How 16.03 was calculated?Thanks!
November 9, 2013 at 7:08 pm #145203Rose originally bought 70% and is now buying a further 10 of the nci’s 30% – and that’s where the 10/30 comes from.
Having valued the increase in the value of Petal since acquisition, 30% of that increase is attributable to the nci ie 30% x 48.1 million = 16.03
November 11, 2013 at 6:44 am #145343Thanks Mike!
November 11, 2013 at 6:55 pm #145444You’re welcome
November 13, 2013 at 1:08 am #145756Sir so we could take FX gains/losses on retranslation to group retained earnings also?
December 1, 2013 at 4:08 pm #148882It’s really the only place you could take them
December 1, 2013 at 4:46 pm #148896Bcz i normally make another working as the Group Foreign exchange reserve .
December 1, 2013 at 7:52 pm #148934That’s ok too – it really should be a separate part of equity so technically your way is fine.
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