Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA APM Exams › Transfer Pricing-June 2011-1(b)
- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by samiirah.
- AuthorPosts
- May 10, 2013 at 10:52 am #125050
Hi
I would like to have some help on Paper June 2011-Question 1 (b) transfer pricing.
Please explain to be about the market pricing and cost based approach of TP.
I didnt understand why the $ 200 market price has been treated as revenue for the services dept (39600 X 200), when you outsource , this should have been appear as a cost to the comp because the comp have to pay the outsource comp for each each repair done on JHK behalf, right???
Please if possible explain to me the whole part on transfer pricing (June 2011-Q1 (b)).
I have failed last time dont want to fail this time.May 10, 2013 at 10:58 am #125052Please note its for paper P5, i forgot to mention earlier
May 11, 2013 at 7:40 am #125156The point is “What should the service division charge the M/S division?”
If it used a market-price approach, then it would charge the M/S division $200. instead of its current 10,000/(440,000 x 9%) = $252.53. The market price for the work gives both parties an external benchmark about what the work should cost or earn.
At present the high transfer price gives the service department an easy ride as the oursourcer could do the work and make a profit at $200 a job. Also, the price of this work to M/S is high as presumably it could go directly to the outsourcer itself – and that wouldn’t be a good decision for the group. So $200 keeps the service department on its toes and efficient and encourages M/S to feel that it isn’t getting a raw deal.
May 11, 2013 at 8:35 am #125161Hello
thank you so much, all that make sense now. mean i read the question wrong.
thank you now i understand , i will do the question againthanks
- AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.