In this qs the yr is 20X1 and debt is redeemable in 20X8 so why have they taken cash flows to be of only 1-5 yrs??although it should be 1-8 yrs cash flow then yr8 repayable?
I do not have the BPP books. Unless there is something else mentioned in the question (such as the debt being convertible at an earlier date?) then it would sound as though you are correct and that they have made a mistake!