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value at risk

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA AFM Advanced Financial Management Forums › value at risk

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 13 years ago by Avatarray3026.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • March 20, 2013 at 9:23 pm #120147
    Avatarcarl29
    Member
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 245
    • ☆☆☆

    How does one establish pvar from a distribution table?

    I’m working through a practice question, and it states pvar at 98% = 1.645. How is that determined?

    March 21, 2013 at 5:57 pm #120289
    Avatarray3026
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆

    Hi

    I think 1.645 is referring to 95%

    To get value, first split 98% to 50% and 48% and you need to read through the distribution table and you will see 0·4798 0·4803 under 2.0 with 0.05 and 0.06. Hence the estimated value for 98% is actually 2.055.

    For this paper, just remember the value derived from VaR, valuation method etc is always estimated, hence it is good to state the assumption that the figures from blah blah is estimated.

    any forumer, do correct me if i am wrong.

    April 10, 2013 at 9:02 am #122092
    Avatarcarl29
    Member
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 245
    • ☆☆☆

    In the exam, will this only be tested from theoretical perspective? the only explanations I can find on the subject seem to refer to the VAR as being 5%, which is 1.645 and 100% which is 2.33, I cant find anything that explains how to calculate these values

    April 10, 2013 at 10:12 am #122095
    Avatarray3026
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆

    for this topic, i doubt the examiner will test us on theoretical aspect. it is likely on how you calculate the VaR and how you understand this topic.

    for 95% confidence level, you are expected to explain what is happening to 95% and 5% respectively.

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