Sept/Dec question 1b part iForums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Sept/Dec question 1b part iThis topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by John Moffat.Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total) AuthorPosts May 28, 2017 at 2:49 pm #388605 AnonymousInactiveTopics: 13Replies: 6☆Hi,When calculating the MVd for the first proposal, the answer says $120m (which I have assumed to be the non current liabilities amount) x 0.2 – is it 0.2 because 80% of the long term debt will have been paid off as per the question?I’m a little confused where the 0.2 comes from.ThanksEmma May 28, 2017 at 6:22 pm #388640 John MoffatKeymasterTopics: 56Replies: 53820☆☆☆☆☆In future please do say the year of the exam! I assume you are meaning the Sep/Dec 2016 hybrid paper 🙂Yes – the 0.2 (or 20%) is because 80% of the debt will be paid off.AuthorPostsViewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)The topic ‘Sept/Dec question 1b part i’ is closed to new replies.