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GXG

Mmansoor10y ago
GXG is an e-business ... they need to raise 3.2m. option 1: suspend dividends for 2 years and then pay divs of 25c per share from the end of the third year, increasing annually at 4% per year in subsequent years. div in recent years have grown by 3%. Recent div paid: 1.6m, 10m shares in issue with nominal value of 50c. cost of equity = 9% what is the value of the company using the DVM answer in the kit: divs at end of 3rd year = 10m x .25 = 2.5m then it says: capital value at end of year two = 2.5/(.09-.04) = 50m - i dont understand this at all. pls explain, rgards
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#1
They are using the dividend valuation formula from the formula sheet that is given in the exam. However the formula has Do(1+g) on the top of the equation (which is the dividend in 1 year time) and gives the value at time 0. In this question we know the dividend in 3 year time, and so if you use this on the top of the formula, then because it is 2 years later than if it was in 1 years time, the answer from the formula will also be 2 years later and will be the value on 2 year time instead of the value at time 0 (now).
Mmansoor10y ago#2
hmmm....so we r setting 2.5m=D0x(1+g) .. but i am unable to grasp this. so i tried going forward in time as follows: pv at t3 = 2.5m x (1.04)/(.09-.04) = 52 now i discount it back to t0 by 52/(1.09)^3 = 40 is this logic correct? would the examiner throw me out had i done this in the exam? thanks in advance
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#3
No - the examiner would not throw you out. What you are doing is fine :-)
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