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FAExcess depreciation

SLS le3y ago
Can anyone explain me the logic of making a transfer of the excess depreciation from revaluation surplus to retained earnings I dont get this whole thing
MmrjonbainModerator3y ago#1
It's to essentially make the situation fairer. If an entity revalues an asset then more depreciation will be charged than if it hadn't revalued. It's profitability would look worse than if it hadn't revalued. Making the transfer from revaluation surplus corrects this problem.
MmrjonbainModerator3y ago#2
Please also see the following thread- https://opentuition.com/topic/revaluation-30/ Hope this helps.
SLS le3y ago#3
Thank you Would you be able to guide me as to in which lecture is this topic discussed I am having trouble finding it.
MmrjonbainModerator3y ago#4
You are welcome. Not sure if or where a video is available at this level. However, I found this video- https://opentuition.com/acca/fr/ppe-revaluation-upwards-acca-financial-reporting-fr/comment-page-1/
MmrjonbainModerator3y ago#5
You might also find this thread to be useful- https://opentuition.com/topic/excess-depreciation-charge-transferred-to-retained-earnings/
MmrjonbainModerator3y ago#6
You might also find the following useful- https://opentuition.com/topic/revaluation-of-previously-depreciated-asset/
MmrjonbainModerator3y ago#7
I would suggest the above topic may be of more importance in the financial reporting subject of Acca.
MmrjonbainModerator3y ago#8
Hope you find above useful.
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