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Hi,
A couple of times in questions I have arrived at the wrong answer for NCI in the consolidated IS because I have attributed part of an impairment loss to NCI, whereas the answer seems to attribute the whole impairment loss to the parent. In both questions I have noticed this the NCI is valued at full value, so as I understand part of the goodwill is attributable to them and therefore an impairment should be allocated to them. I don’t really understand why the answers are allocating the whole goodwill impairment to the parent, especially when I have seen goodwill impairments being split on consolidated SOFP.
The two questions I have noticed this in are both in the BPP 2011 exam/revision kit, Question 44, Patronic and Mock exam 2 question Hosterling
Would anyone be able to help?
Thanks
I haven’t seen the questions but u seem right by your argument.
few things to remember because of which u might be wrong
Impairment is allocated on the basis of holding %age
In I/S only for the year impairment is charged.!There can be an error in kit as well (the exam kit is six sigma certified so there may be 3.4 defected lined in 1 million lines 🙂 )
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