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October 11, 2018 at 2:34 pm
This has confused me as well. Surely $/£1.50 means $1 = £1.50? I also got £1.47. Would love to know if this is correct and if the above is indeed just a typo.
July 24, 2018 at 3:06 pm
I think it is due to typo in the study notes. This should have been quoted as £1/$1.5 instead of $1/£1.5.
June 26, 2018 at 9:54 am
In this question, Example 10:
It is $1/£1.5
So wouldn’t it be $66.67 for the same product.
and PPP would be = 1.5 X(1.02/1.04) ie, £1.47
And this means $ has weakened and also coz inflation was higher for US that makes sense.
Am I wrong? I just got really confused. Thanks in advance!
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