F2 question on Convertible Bonds If a right to convert to shares is not exercised and bonds are redeemed at maturity date transactions would be: CR Cash (for face value paid out) DR Liabilities (for full value available after years of amortisation) So WHAT HAPPENS to the equity element of the initial recognition that we have sat on SoFP?
Thank you for the video. In this question we have discount rates given, which is great. Would we be able to answer this question if these discount rates were not calculated for us, ie. can we derive the discount rates by just knowing the coupon rate of 4% and market rate of 8%.
The question above is a bit silly. Discount rate is calculated using the formula 1/(1+i)^n where i represents interest rate and n number of periods. But at least now I know. 馃檪
Nice video. But I could not understand one thing, the total PV which is the liability $89604 then how come that becomes B/F for year 1 in the next slide. Please explain
robertaz says
F2 question on Convertible Bonds
If a right to convert to shares is not exercised and bonds are redeemed at maturity date transactions would be:
CR Cash (for face value paid out)
DR Liabilities (for full value available after years of amortisation)
So WHAT HAPPENS to the equity element of the initial recognition that we have sat on SoFP?
oportjunik says
Hello,
Thank you for the video. In this question we have discount rates given, which is great. Would we be able to answer this question if these discount rates were not calculated for us, ie. can we derive the discount rates by just knowing the coupon rate of 4% and market rate of 8%.
Thanks
oportjunik says
The question above is a bit silly. Discount rate is calculated using the formula 1/(1+i)^n where i represents interest rate and n number of periods. But at least now I know. 馃檪
Thanks
P2-D2 says
Hi,
The discounted figure is what we recognise as the liability on initial recognition and so is the opening figure in our financial liability table.
Thanks
carl239 says
Nice video. But I could not understand one thing, the total PV which is the liability $89604 then how come that becomes B/F for year 1 in the next slide. Please explain