In example 1 it looks as though the cost is subtracted twice. Firstly without the indexation applied and then again with it applied, can someone explain why? I would have thought you would just subtract the index applied cost?
Would you please clarify why in case of individual shares sale, we match cost with forward 30 days purchase, while in case of corporate shares sale we look at 9 days backwards purchases?
In example 1 it looks as though the cost is subtracted twice. Firstly without the indexation applied and then again with it applied, can someone explain why? I would have thought you would just subtract the index applied cost?
You first deduct the actual cost and enhancment exp and then you multiply these costs with indexed factor.
these calculations are wrong In Example 4:
2500*1.375=3438 NOT 3393
the final answer is therefore 9063
Both the question and answer give the indexation of 1.357 not 1.375 therefore the answer in the lecture is correct at 3,393 and 9,107
Would you please clarify why in case of individual shares sale, we match cost with forward 30 days purchase, while in case of corporate shares sale we look at 9 days backwards purchases?
Please ask this question in the Ask the Tutor forum, and not as a comment on the lecture. The tutor here doesn’t read the comments like you think!
Rules,
you don’t make your own just learn and implement them.