Sir, Isn’t a penetration strategy used for relatively new products in an already established market? Isn’t it a long term approach rather than a short term (2 weeks). I read it in another subject of mine that penetration pricing is used when the market is old but the product is new. Please clear my confusion. Because there are 2 major strategies for new products ( price skimming and market penetration), price skimming is a short term strategy to sell products at the higher price initially so as to take advantage of lack of competitors and new technology and recover the cost of production and profit as soon as possible. And market penetration is a long term strategy to sell below the present market price to get accepted by the consumers. Where did I understand wrong?
The question you are talking about is question 4. It totally depends on the company on how long they want to use the strategy according to market response and various factors. But as in question 4 it is clearly given that it is given a promotional discount in hopes of increasing price in 2 weeks. Hope i am able to clear your doubt. Thank you
hey john just had one doubt, it is explained that in market penetration initially “prices” are kept very low so as to promote the product, here in the question 4 it is said “heavy discounts” are offered, but there is huge difference between keeping price low and giving high discounts. That question gives me slight confusion regarding this terms. please helps me with same.
Why do you say there is a huge difference? Giving big discounts initially means the cost will be low initially. Once they have penetrated the market they can stop giving the high discounts.
Thanks for these questions. They’re very helpful. Though I missed question 1 but I have learnt my mistake. Margin is the profit expressed as a % of selling price and mark-up is the profit expressed as a % of cost. Practice makes perfect when you attempt something for the first time without looking at the comments or answers of others.
Thank you very much. We really appreciate your efforts in the excellent explanation of each chapter and problem solving and your responses to queries. We are highly obliged to you and Open Tuition for bringing this platform to all aspiring ACCA students.
Hi John. Ur lectures are really helpful indeed. Just a small query. why do we consider fixed cost in q1 while calculating the total cost? thanks in advance
In the determination of selling price(Qn.#1): Margin is related with selling price whereas Mark-up is related with cost.i.e when margin is given, the base for calculation is selling price and for mark-up the base will be cost figure. Am I true?
A gross profit margin of 20% means that the profit is 20% of the selling price. So for every $100 selling price, the profit is $20 and therefore the cost is $80. Putting it the other way round, for every $80 cost the selling price will be $100.
Therefore is the cost is $26, the selling price must be 100/80 x $26.
It is explained in full in my free lectures on pricing (along with all other other pricing strategies you are expected to be aware of). There is no point in attempting the tests unless you have already watched the lectures. (The lectures are a complete free course for Paper F5 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.)
If you look at the formula on the formula sheet for the marginal revenue, you will see that it has 2b in it!
(I do suggest that you watch our free lectures before you try the practice tests – our lectures are a complete course for Paper F5 and I actually work through this example in the lecture on pricing!!!)
100percent
Sir had a doubt regarding differential pricing and price discrimination.
Are both the same thing?
Yes they are
Sir,
Isn’t a penetration strategy used for relatively new products in an already established market? Isn’t it a long term approach rather than a short term (2 weeks). I read it in another subject of mine that penetration pricing is used when the market is old but the product is new. Please clear my confusion. Because there are 2 major strategies for new products ( price skimming and market penetration), price skimming is a short term strategy to sell products at the higher price initially so as to take advantage of lack of competitors and new technology and recover the cost of production and profit as soon as possible. And market penetration is a long term strategy to sell below the present market price to get accepted by the consumers. Where did I understand wrong?
The question you are talking about is question 4.
It totally depends on the company on how long they want to use the strategy according to market response and various factors.
But as in question 4 it is clearly given that it is given a promotional discount in hopes of increasing price in 2 weeks.
Hope i am able to clear your doubt.
Thank you
hey john just had one doubt, it is explained that in market penetration initially “prices” are kept very low so as to promote the product, here in the question 4 it is said “heavy discounts” are offered, but there is huge difference between keeping price low and giving high discounts. That question gives me slight confusion regarding this terms. please helps me with same.
Why do you say there is a huge difference? Giving big discounts initially means the cost will be low initially. Once they have penetrated the market they can stop giving the high discounts.
ok sir , i understood the same, thank you.
You are welcome ๐
hello sir
is product line pricing the same as differential pricing
please dont reply, i understand now
I am happy that you now understand ๐
afzair21: ๐
100% yahhhoooooooooooooooo
Thanks for these questions. They’re very helpful. Though I missed question 1 but I have learnt my mistake. Margin is the profit expressed as a % of selling price and mark-up is the profit expressed as a % of cost. Practice makes perfect when you attempt something for the first time without looking at the comments or answers of others.
Thank you for leaving this comment. I learnt from your comment
Hi Sir,
Thank you very much. We really appreciate your efforts in the excellent explanation of each chapter and problem solving and your responses to queries. We are highly obliged to you and Open Tuition for bringing this platform to all aspiring ACCA students.
Thank you very much for your comment ๐
Hi John. Ur lectures are really helpful indeed. Just a small query. why do we consider fixed cost in q1 while calculating the total cost? thanks in advance
It is because they are using absorption costing – with absorption costing we always absorb and include the fixed production cost.
In the determination of selling price(Qn.#1): Margin is related with selling price whereas Mark-up is related with cost.i.e when margin is given, the base for calculation is selling price and for mark-up the base will be cost figure. Am I true?
Yes, that is true (and I do explain this in my lectures ๐ )
The free lectures are a complete course for Paper F5 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
hi
in the first question of test , where is 100/80 coming ?
cant we just calculate 26*20% = 31.20
but the answer showing here is 100/80*26 = 32.50
Can you please explain ??
Thanks
Krupali
A gross profit margin of 20% means that the profit is 20% of the selling price.
So for every $100 selling price, the profit is $20 and therefore the cost is $80.
Putting it the other way round, for every $80 cost the selling price will be $100.
Therefore is the cost is $26, the selling price must be 100/80 x $26.
Understood .
๐
Thanks
You are welcome ๐
So although Q5 did not have the option of Price Discrimination, it is in fact the same as Differential Pricing.
Yes (as I state in the free lecture) ๐
what does it mean by penetration pricing ? please explain.
It is explained in full in my free lectures on pricing (along with all other other pricing strategies you are expected to be aware of).
There is no point in attempting the tests unless you have already watched the lectures.
(The lectures are a complete free course for Paper F5 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.)
Hi Mr John
I know in advance that I will have to watch the video but the only bit I do not understand is where 8 coming from
1- DY/DX = 30/10000=0.003
2- (0.003*100000)+200=500
3-Price demand equation = P-0.003*X =500-0.003X
4- differentiation = 500-0.006x
5- Maximising profit = MR=MC
6- so 500 โ 0.006Q = 8 ? Please how?
7- Q Units =82000
8- Price demand of units will be; 500-(82000*0.003)=254
The only thing I am not clear is where 8 comes from, really appreciate
Is this 8 is the VC ? If yes then I got the technique.
Yes, as you will see in the lecture, the optimum price is when marginal revenue = marginal cost.
In example about penetration pricing, how to define that it’s not volume discounting?
Volume discounting is when a customer buying a large quantity is given a discount.
Okay. thanks for reply.
You are welcome ๐
hi Mr. Moffat, please how is it that in qtn 2, the b is not arrived at this way?…
P = a – bQ
25 = a – 20,000b ….. (i)
30 = a – 18,000b ……(ii)
(i) – (ii)
-5 = 0 – (20,000b – (-18,000b)
-5 = -20,000b + 18,000b
-5 = -2,000b
-5/2,000 = b
thus b = -0.0025
or is it just basic arithmetic that when a negative number is cross dividing is doesn’t change to a positive number?
Thanx very much.
You are welcome ๐
Hi Sir,
I did that question. Thank you for the explanation.
I was on about the question where it says materials is $10, labour is $8, variable is $3 and fixed costs is $5.
How to work out the seling price?
The total cost is $26 per unit.
The margin is 20%. So the profit is 20% of selling price, and therefore the cost is 80% of selling price.
Since the cost is 26, the selling price must be 26/80% = $32.50.
Hi Sir,
How do you work out question 1?
I assume that you have watched the free lecture for Chapter 7 before attempting this test?
For the price demand equation, b = 30/10000 = 0.003
a = 200 + (100,000 x 0.003) = 500
So P = 500 – 0.003Q
So the marginal revenue = MR = 500 – 0.006Q
For maximum profit MR = MC
so 500 – 0.006Q = 8
so Q = 492/0.006 = 82,000
Therefore, in the price demand equation, P = 500 – (82,000 x 0.003) = $254 per unit
where is the 0.006 coming from, when we got our b as 0.003?
If you look at the formula on the formula sheet for the marginal revenue, you will see that it has 2b in it!
(I do suggest that you watch our free lectures before you try the practice tests – our lectures are a complete course for Paper F5 and I actually work through this example in the lecture on pricing!!!)