Could you correct my logic for #5: Actual fix.o/h = 0.98 Bud.fix o/h, => Bud.fix o/h = 1.02 Actual fix.o/h So equation is: Actual fix.o/h – 1.02 Actual fix.o/h = 1250 ( suppose here should be minus 1250, because it’s adverse var., am I right?) Finally we get: Actual fix.o/h = 1250 / 0.02 = 62.5 k (eliminated minuses). Budgeted fix. o/h would be = 62.5 k + 1250.
They are not absorbed into the unit cost, but they exist and reduce the profit. If the actual fixed overheads are different from the budget figure then the profit will be different and there is a variance (but only an expenditure variance, there is no volume variance).
I do suggest that you watch my free lectures on this where I explain!
Gitau says
surprisingly got 100%, thought i’d get the last one wrong , very tricky.
baraka42 says
Hello Sir, Question 1 has throw me off a bit.
AqAp =204750
AqSp = 210000
5250
Where I am confused is that, what we spent is under what we budgeted for. So I do not understand why it is a favourable variance instead of Adverse.
baraka42 says
Sorry I meant why it is an adverse instead of it being a favourable variance
John Moffat says
The question as asking about sales variances – it has nothing to do with spending.
baraka42 says
Hello Sir, Question 1 has throw me off a bit.
AqAp =204750
AqSp
CrisAchim says
No 5 tricky indeed!
Picked 62,500 without deducting the variance.
Thanks
kvz911 says
Amazing Test Sir ! I Got 100%. No 5 was tricky though. 馃檪
John Moffat says
Great 馃檪
tanyan says
Thank You John, your lectures are indeed fruitful
John Moffat says
Thank you for your comment
IgorKh says
Hello,
Could you correct my logic for #5:
Actual fix.o/h = 0.98 Bud.fix o/h, => Bud.fix o/h = 1.02 Actual fix.o/h
So equation is: Actual fix.o/h – 1.02 Actual fix.o/h = 1250 ( suppose here should be minus 1250, because it’s adverse var., am I right?)
Finally we get: Actual fix.o/h = 1250 / 0.02 = 62.5 k (eliminated minuses). Budgeted fix. o/h would be = 62.5 k + 1250.
Thank you.
John Moffat says
Your first line is wrong. Budgeted fixed overheads = actual fixed overheads / 0.98 = 1.020409 x actual fixed overheads.
IgorKh says
Could you share correct one.
Thank you,
Igor
rokhan says
Dear John, in marginal costing there is no fixed overhead , how fixed overhead variance arises in marginal costing,thank you.
John Moffat says
Of course there are fixed overheads!!! 馃檪
They are not absorbed into the unit cost, but they exist and reduce the profit. If the actual fixed overheads are different from the budget figure then the profit will be different and there is a variance (but only an expenditure variance, there is no volume variance).
I do suggest that you watch my free lectures on this where I explain!