Hi Sir, I don’t understand why we dont add 88,800 (specific) and 57,600 (general) and then find the difference for the increase/ decrease in allowance in Q1
Q3 makes no sense. Why are the irrecoverable debts not deducted from the receivables when deriving the new allowance?
If they were already written off during the year according to the answers, then how can the decrease in allowance be deducted from it to reduce the total expense?
The question makes perfect sense (and is a past real exam question!).
It specifically says that the debt was written off during the year, and so the net expense for the year is the irrecoverable debt less the decrease in the allowance for receivables (as explained in the free lectures).
If you get the answers right and if you attempt them under time pressure (especially the mock exams) then you certainly should be able to pass the exam.
In question 4 why did they not subtract the 2900 yet even in the answer notes they say that the amount should be credited in the receivables account making the answer(50000+1800-2500-2900)
According to the question, the cash received has been entered in the receivables account. This was correct (as stated in the answer) which is why it does not need to be entered again.
Asssalam u Alaikum Why we add Kenn in Receivables??? But when Irrecoverable debt is recovered…. The Accounting entry is: Dr Cash Cr Irrecoverable debts Expense (Kaplan Publishing) Plz Kindly Clarify… Thanx
Because the question says that the cash received has been entered in the receivables account. It should not have been entered there and so if it is removed then receivables will be higher.
Help l’m not getting it, we are saying in our receivables of $50 000, $1 800 from Ken is included which must not be in the receivables right. so to remove it we must add it again?
Sir Question #02 Why we add net allowance and a decrease in allowance in total expense[total expense=4000+2050] why we did not subtract them[total expense =4000-2050] plx tell me
The question says that the 50,000 receivables figure includes 2,500 from Mike. That means he is still showing as owing the money. It does not say that the money was received (and it obviously won’t be since he has gone into liquidation, so it needs writing off as irrecoverable.)
Hello, in question 2 – why are we calculating the new allowance only of the receivables of $185K and ignoring the previous year? Is it a tricky question and because it is only mentioned that the company had receivables of $140K and not calling it a balance we ignore it?
The allowance is always calculated on the balance on the receivables at the end go the year which was 185,000 (and not 140,000 + 185,000). The expense in the SOPL is the change in the allowance over the year.
Did you watch the free lectures before attempting the test?
rahmatbakhshisays
Hello sir, I think there is no any other indication for Ken except this small point at starting the question ( This including…) otherwise we are not supposed to Credit the receivable for receiving the cash which had been previously written off. In stead we will record this amount (e.g: 1800) as sundry income. Thanks in advance
Question 4 is still confusing in Ken part – 1800. I understand that 1800 was is to be debited from the recivabkes and credit irrecoverable exp. so if it’s debited it means that it will be 1. 50,000- 2500= 47500 2. Then 47500- 1800( debiting the receivables ) = 45700 3. 45700 + 1800 = 47500 then crediting the receivables again.
Are we suppose to leave the 1800 and not debit it and add to it again
For the answer to be 49300 it means the receivables was not debited with the 1800.
The cash received should not have been entered to the receivables account because the debt had previously been written off. However, the question says that it has been entered (and because it was cash received it will have been credited). Since it should not have been entered the credit entry needs to be cancelled and so we will debit receivables to cancel it.
I really do not understand sir. When the question said “adjust the allowance for receivables to the equivalent of 5%”, does it mean that 93 600 must be reduced to 57 600? If that is the case, then shouldn’t the 57 600 (seeing as it is now the balance on the allowance for receivables account) be debited to the irrecoverable and doubtful expense account (88 800 + 57 600=146 400) and then credit the irrecoverable and doubtful debt expense account by (93 600 – 57 600=36000)? That would then leave a balance on the irrecoverable and doubtful debts expense account of (146 400 – 36 000=110 400)? I am trying to do it in the T-accounts way because I understand better that way.
There is already a credit balance on the allowance account of 93,600 from last year. We need to reduce this to 57,600 and we therefore debit the allowance account with the difference of 36,000 and credit the irrecoverable debts expense account.
For the irrecoverable debt, we debit the irrecoverable debts expense account with 88,800.
This leave a balance on the irrecoverable debts expense account of 52,600 to be transferred to the SOPL.
Did you watch the free lectures on this before attempting the test?
Katiesmyth00 says
Hi Sir, I don’t understand why we dont add 88,800 (specific) and 57,600 (general) and then find the difference for the increase/ decrease in allowance in Q1
John Moffat says
The 88,800 is not a specific allowance. It is the irrecoverable debts that are written off.
heidifly says
Question 1
The calculations are incorrect
Decrease in allowance 93,600 – 57,600 = 36,000 not 38,000
88,800 – 36,000 (not 38,000) = 52,800
Unless I am going mad!!!
John Moffat says
You are correct and I will have the workings changed. (However, as you have written, the final answer of 52,800 is correct 🙂 )
fahim231 says
Q3 makes no sense.
Why are the irrecoverable debts not deducted from the receivables when deriving the new allowance?
If they were already written off during the year according to the answers, then how can the decrease in allowance be deducted from it to reduce the total expense?
John Moffat says
The question makes perfect sense (and is a past real exam question!).
It specifically says that the debt was written off during the year, and so the net expense for the year is the irrecoverable debt less the decrease in the allowance for receivables (as explained in the free lectures).
gufranm says
Sir if I solve all questions of kaplan exam kit then I will pass the exam
John Moffat says
If you get the answers right and if you attempt them under time pressure (especially the mock exams) then you certainly should be able to pass the exam.
Sharifi12 says
Alhamdullilah!!!
100% scored
Gachez says
In question 4 why did they not subtract the 2900 yet even in the answer notes they say that the amount should be credited in the receivables account making the answer(50000+1800-2500-2900)
John Moffat says
According to the question, the cash received has been entered in the receivables account. This was correct (as stated in the answer) which is why it does not need to be entered again.
Gachez says
and what if they had told us there was an irrecoverable debt of 1000…would we make any revision to the receivables amount??
Sharifi12 says
Dear!
Remember we can’t allowance value in receivable account then 2900 doesn’t belong to receivable acc
saddamalili says
This question has already been asked and answered. Sorry
Iqra6 says
Asssalam u Alaikum
Why we add Kenn in Receivables???
But when Irrecoverable debt is recovered….
The Accounting entry is:
Dr Cash
Cr Irrecoverable debts Expense
(Kaplan Publishing)
Plz Kindly Clarify…
Thanx
John Moffat says
Because the question says that the cash received has been entered in the receivables account. It should not have been entered there and so if it is removed then receivables will be higher.
Tkulz98 says
Help l’m not getting it, we are saying in our receivables of $50 000, $1 800 from Ken is included which must not be in the receivables right. so to remove it we must add it again?
ahsanjaved0444 says
I dont understand question no 3
For new allouncea why we dont minus the irr from receviable?
John Moffat says
Because the question says that they were written off during the year. So the receivables balance has already had them removed.
Iqra6 says
Sir Question #02
Why we add net allowance and a decrease in allowance in total expense[total expense=4000+2050]
why we did not subtract them[total expense =4000-2050]
plx tell me
John Moffat says
There is an increase in the allowance, not a decrease!!
naiyaz says
Wow
Asif110 says
However I do like to point out, there’s some correction to be added.
Q1 – ‘o’ has been written instead of ‘off’.
And in one of the working for the answers, your wrote =38,000 instead of 36,000. (Although the final answer was correct)
Asif110 says
Grateful for the useful Exercises, Sir. We grow from mistakes. Lectures + Exercises = Revised.
John Moffat says
But make sure that you also have a Revision Kit from one of the ACCA Approved Publishers, as I keep stressing 🙂
benjamincarsonrhule says
100% at first attempt.
Thanks to OpenTuition ?
lokeshdh00 says
first adjustment in question no.4 is vague, i took it as 2500 received from mike after he gone to liquidation !
John Moffat says
No, it is not vague. It does not say ‘cash received’ as do two of the others.
seef says
ok, what does 2500 from mike mean? I took it as money from mike too.
John Moffat says
The question says that the 50,000 receivables figure includes 2,500 from Mike. That means he is still showing as owing the money. It does not say that the money was received (and it obviously won’t be since he has gone into liquidation, so it needs writing off as irrecoverable.)
tkhue3296 says
2 point , CHEER
marta5602 says
Hello, in question 2 – why are we calculating the new allowance only of the receivables of $185K and ignoring the previous year? Is it a tricky question and because it is only mentioned that the company had receivables of $140K and not calling it a balance we ignore it?
John Moffat says
The allowance required at the end of the year is always calculated on the receivables at the end of the year.
When the question says that the receivables on 31 December are $140,000 it does not need to use the word ‘balance’ because it can only be the balance!
Did you watch the free lectures on this before attempting the test?
atabey99 says
Sir I also don’t get it why don’t we use 140,000 + 185,000 to find new allowance because our last example 3 we used previous year’s receivables.
John Moffat says
The allowance is always calculated on the balance on the receivables at the end go the year which was 185,000 (and not 140,000 + 185,000). The expense in the SOPL is the change in the allowance over the year.
Did you watch the free lectures before attempting the test?
rahmatbakhshi says
Hello sir,
I think there is no any other indication for Ken except this small point at starting the question ( This including…) otherwise we are not supposed to Credit the receivable for receiving the cash which had been previously written off. In stead we will record this amount (e.g: 1800) as sundry income.
Thanks in advance
tosinpaul91 says
Hello sir ,
Question 4 is still confusing in Ken part – 1800. I understand that 1800 was is to be debited from the recivabkes and credit irrecoverable exp. so if it’s debited it means that it will be
1. 50,000- 2500= 47500
2. Then 47500- 1800( debiting the receivables ) = 45700
3. 45700 + 1800 = 47500 then crediting the receivables again.
Are we suppose to leave the 1800 and not debit it and add to it again
For the answer to be 49300 it means the receivables was not debited with the 1800.
Please kindly clarify .
Thanks a bunch
John Moffat says
The cash received should not have been entered to the receivables account because the debt had previously been written off. However, the question says that it has been entered (and because it was cash received it will have been credited). Since it should not have been entered the credit entry needs to be cancelled and so we will debit receivables to cancel it.
saman66 says
great answer .thanks.
John Moffat says
You are welcome 🙂
nyamabika says
thank you so much sir well explained
kemkemkem says
I really do not understand sir. When the question said “adjust the allowance for receivables to the equivalent of 5%”, does it mean that 93 600 must be reduced to 57 600? If that is the case, then shouldn’t the 57 600 (seeing as it is now the balance on the allowance for receivables account) be debited to the irrecoverable and doubtful expense account (88 800 + 57 600=146 400) and then credit the irrecoverable and doubtful debt expense account by (93 600 – 57 600=36000)? That would then leave a balance on the irrecoverable and doubtful debts expense account of (146 400 – 36 000=110 400)? I am trying to do it in the T-accounts way because I understand better that way.
John Moffat says
There is already a credit balance on the allowance account of 93,600 from last year. We need to reduce this to 57,600 and we therefore debit the allowance account with the difference of 36,000 and credit the irrecoverable debts expense account.
For the irrecoverable debt, we debit the irrecoverable debts expense account with 88,800.
This leave a balance on the irrecoverable debts expense account of 52,600 to be transferred to the SOPL.
Did you watch the free lectures on this before attempting the test?
kemkemkem says
Yes I did watch the lectures. I re-watched example 3 and there it was! Thank you!
John Moffat says
You are welcome 🙂
John Moffat says
traceyjaybee: Very true 🙂
tracyjaybee says
Question 3 was mean! It really highlighted that I need to RTQ!!!
andreis says
Darn, true! I will need to read questions more carefully next time as I ended up with 98.4..