Hi, in Q 3, Why did Sherley calculate provion as $3000 as a lawyer advised and June LTD did $ 100 000 as provision, but lawyer estimated as 60 % ($60 000). i think it is the same situation, right?
For item 1, I’m still quite confused as to how and why 6% of sales can be a signal for us to make provisions. Is it related to its definition “…reliably estimated”?
If 6% of the sales give rise to a claim, then it is virtually certain that there will be warranty claims. So 6% is not the probability of there being claims, it is just the likely amount of the claims.
1. It is virtually certain that there will be warranty claims. How much will be claimed is not sure (it will probably be around 6%) but there are virtually certain to be some claims whatever % it is.
2. It is only possible that they might have to pay. The might not have to pay anything.
TheMrAccountant says
Hi, in Q 3, Why did Sherley calculate provion as $3000 as a lawyer advised and June LTD did $ 100 000 as provision, but lawyer estimated as 60 % ($60 000). i think it is the same situation, right?
John Moffat says
60% means that it is probably and therefore we make a provision
ssoonaya says
Question 2
For item 1, I’m still quite confused as to how and why 6% of sales can be a signal for us to make provisions. Is it related to its definition “…reliably estimated”?
John Moffat says
If 6% of the sales give rise to a claim, then it is virtually certain that there will be warranty claims. So 6% is not the probability of there being claims, it is just the likely amount of the claims.
sandesholi23 says
Why to provide for 110000 and not 60% of 100000 + 10000 ?
John Moffat says
Because the payment is probable (i.e. the chances are more than 50%).
Did you watch the free lecture before attempting the test?
sk.acca says
yes probable… so need a provision for 100000 and lawyer exp is certain . there is no correct ans . all ans are wrong
Jaimz says
Here, 60% is the probability of having to pay the 100,000 in damages not 60% of 100,000.
John Moffat says
The answer given is correct
syeddaniyalhasan says
Got 75% 🙂
C1997 says
Question 2:
Why is item 1 considered virtually certain?
Why is item 2 disclosed by note only and not treated as a provision?
John Moffat says
1. It is virtually certain that there will be warranty claims. How much will be claimed is not sure (it will probably be around 6%) but there are virtually certain to be some claims whatever % it is.
2. It is only possible that they might have to pay. The might not have to pay anything.
Ademilola says
but i believed virtually certain was used for asset not liabilities to be incurred,, that means they are probable
John Moffat says
So? That means that we make a provision.
Wasfi says
Got 75% .nice
Tobysaint says
got 75%
Hussayn says
Thanks Mr. John Moffat.
I got 100%
John Moffat says
🙂