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Strategy formulation (Part 2) – ACCA (AFM) lectures

VIVA

Reader Interactions

Comments

  1. Starmoon123 says

    May 19, 2025 at 5:00 pm

    Thanks for the lecture first. May I confirm that even though we calculated 5 ratios to analyze the company’s performance to achieve its objective, should we need to provide an opinion or conclusion on whether the company has achieved or not achieved its target? and if so, should we need to provide an assumption about why they achieve/do not achieve?
    for example, we can see Repse has a significant decrease in long-term debt and issued new shares in year 3. Could I say Repse has not achieved its objective because the profit margin has decreased from yr1 (19.87%) to yr3 (17.20%). Besides, it has repaid a lot of debt in year 3 and therefore may not have adequate financing resources during that period. In this regard, it reasonably assumed that they issued new shares in year 3 as additional financing resources. This also diluted the market value of shares.
    Would above answers get points in the exam or it is unnecessary?

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  2. mslanina says

    September 7, 2024 at 3:05 pm

    Thank you sir for yet another great lecture!

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  3. javokhirm says

    May 11, 2023 at 9:28 pm

    Thanks for the great lecture, and I do have one question though, as there was a right issue, should not we have to find restated EPS, as right issue includes bonus element?

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  4. njweng27 says

    March 10, 2021 at 3:34 pm

    Thank you sir, very interesting lectures, I’m beginning to love this paper more

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  5. hylauivyy says

    May 6, 2020 at 1:25 am

    Thanks for the lecture. In the answer, I saw the market capitalisation are 86.67 and 143.4 in Year 1 and Year 4 respectively. May I ask how to calculate it? Thanks :))

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    • cians says

      May 26, 2020 at 10:27 pm

      MV of share x Number of shares in issue

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      • John Moffat says

        May 27, 2020 at 8:24 am

        Correct 馃檪

  6. fatimali says

    March 5, 2020 at 9:59 am

    Mr. John, at 3:07 isn’t the increase in turnover 34.7%?

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    • ceevs92 says

      May 23, 2020 at 4:53 am

      I thought the same also?

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      • John Moffat says

        May 23, 2020 at 10:00 am

        Yes, it is 34.7%. I made a mistake 馃檨

  7. bettyli says

    March 3, 2020 at 2:48 pm

    Dear John. For the video at 4:10, the calculation for PBIT, does it should be (11,300-8,700)/8,700, instead of using the number from PAIT (7,550-5,100)/5,100?

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    • bettyli says

      March 3, 2020 at 2:50 pm

      Oh, I figured it out that Mr. John corrected it. Never mind!

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      • John Moffat says

        March 3, 2020 at 3:34 pm

        I am pleased that you figured it out 馃檪

  8. denis2018 says

    July 18, 2018 at 8:09 am

    Hi John! Thx for the resource and for the particular lecture.
    @11:10 on the timeline you state that Net assets=Captital Employed (in particular Shareholders funds + long term borrowings). Aren’t Net assets=Total assets less total liabilities? I’m a bit confused. Thx.

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  9. gumeden says

    July 15, 2018 at 10:50 am

    Thank you very much for this lecture. Just a question please. We know that maximising shareholders wealth is through increasing share price. And also that profits are different from wealth. Would we not loose marks through commenting on PBIT and PAT

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  10. Ihmant says

    July 11, 2018 at 9:52 am

    Dear John, at 2:47, I think the increase is +34.7%, or is it really 11.9%? BR,I.

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    • denis2018 says

      July 18, 2018 at 11:56 am

      Agree that 34.7%. Thx for noting. Probably the John was a bit nervous. The mistake is rather arithmetic. The formula is correct.

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  11. dg1020333 says

    July 3, 2018 at 6:01 pm

    Thanks for the lecture, I need to ask if is it wrong to calculate leverage (Total assets/Equity) instead of gearing(long term debt/equity) for exam purpose? On the above example leverage would be 1,5 while gearing 50% (from leverage we can get 50% easily) but it’s easy to compare the company based on leverage as well.

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