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June 2025 ACCA Exams

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Foreign exchange risk management (2) Part 1 – ACCA (AFM) lectures

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Reader Interactions

Comments

  1. hana1992 says

    June 1, 2025 at 2:19 pm

    Hello Sir,

    I have a bit of dilemma – when we are quoting contracts for options ( USD/GBP GBP 31,250) as you mentioned we say that the contract price is in GBP.
    Does this also go for future prices or is it different interpretation?

    Thank you so much in advance!

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    • John Moffat says

      June 2, 2025 at 5:51 am

      Yes it does, but the question will make the currencies clear.

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  2. abokor says

    October 22, 2022 at 1:22 pm

    Hello sir. hope u are doing well.

    sir can we exercise the options at any date before the end of the month as of the features

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    • John Moffat says

      October 22, 2022 at 3:08 pm

      As is stated in our lectures and lecture notes, European style options can only be exercised at the end of the relevant month, whereas American style options can be exercised as any time up to the end of the relevant month.

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  3. mirliz says

    November 1, 2020 at 9:41 pm

    Sir, compared to the share option where company will always pay high amount and receive low amount, But for currency option we view it as company expecting to receive high amount and pay low amount which is the opposite concept from the share option. Is my understanding here correct?

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    • mirliz says

      November 1, 2020 at 11:41 pm

      I’m sorry, both share and currency option actually got same concept. I’m confusing it with the earliest lecture..

      So for exchange rate rule in buying currency, we translate it on whichever rate that will end up with we pay high amount and receive low amount. But for option, we exercise or let it lapse on whichever that will end up we receive high amount and pay low amount (based on example 1). Is my understanding here right? Please correct me if i’m wrong.

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      • John Moffat says

        November 2, 2020 at 8:37 am

        Correct 馃檪

  4. zhixiang85 says

    January 24, 2019 at 4:34 pm

    Hi John, thank you for the great lecture. I still have doubt on Example on why you would subtract 拢50,000 from the 拢1,317,523 receipt since the option is not exercise for (a) and why is it worse off for (b) when the spot goes 1.6153?.

    Hope you can correct me on my understanding below if anything is wrong. Thank you

    Question : Show the outcome on 30 June if the exchange rate..

    Exercise Option: $2,000,000 / 1.5200 = (拢1,315,789 – 拢50,000) = 拢1,265,789 receipt

    (a) if spot goes 1.5180: $2,000,000 / 1.5180 = 拢1,317,523 receipt.
    This is a Net Loss of 拢51,734 received Less (拢1,317,523 spot – 拢1,265,789 option)

    (b) if spot goes 1.6153: $2,000,000 / 1.6153 = 拢1,238,160 receipt.
    This is a Net Gain of 拢27,629 received More (拢1,238,160 spot against 拢1,265,789 option)

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    • John Moffat says

      January 24, 2019 at 7:48 pm

      There is no gain or loss with OTC options.

      If spot goes to 1.5180 then not exercising would mean converting at spot and getting 1317523, but the premium would still have had to have been paid and so there would be a net receipt of 1317523 – 50,000 = 1267523.
      If they did exercise the option then the net receipt would have been 1316656 – 50,000 = 1266656.
      Therefore, they will not exercise the option because converting at spot gives a higher net receipt.

      Doing the same exercise if the spot goes to 1.6153, then exercising the option gives the bigger receipt and so they will exercise the option.

      Think about it, the higher the spot rate goes then the less the receipt will be if they convert at spot. The whole point of using options is to limit the worst outcome (a higher spot rate will give a worse outcome).

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      • zhixiang85 says

        January 25, 2019 at 3:14 pm

        Thank you John, now i better understood that option is different on how futures works. basically the spot price of 1.5190 will still be used regardless on whether I exercise the option which i paid for 50,000 pound.

  5. Sabiha says

    November 29, 2018 at 6:54 pm

    Hello sir..now that the pattern of the exam has changed u got to do 3 questions and no choice left..i want to ask what do u suggest is it a good idea to attempt 50 mark question first amd then the othr 2 or do u think it is better to attempt section B first

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    • John Moffat says

      November 30, 2018 at 8:36 am

      I personally would attempt the 50 mark question first, but different people have different preferences. Whichever order in which you attempt the questions, most important of all is to allocate your time properly. It is far better to hand in 3 questions, each of which is only partly finished, than to hand in only 2 questions and leave one question unanswered. You should be aiming to get more than 50% on each of the 3 questions.

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  6. imanyuaud says

    October 15, 2018 at 4:15 pm

    Hi thanks for another great lecture…

    Regarding type of options you mentioned European option twice and explained it both as times that its exerciser able up to end of the option date you may want to look at it again…Thanks again

    Regards
    Iman

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    • John Moffat says

      October 15, 2018 at 5:51 pm

      Oops! I am hoping you misheard, but it is probably that I misspoke (it is American style options that can be exercised at any time up to the date).

      Thanks for letting me know 馃檪

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      • Cathal says

        October 24, 2019 at 4:24 pm

        So when you state in last c. 60 seconds of video that “in the exam it is effectively it is as though the options are European”, you meant to say American? As in we assume currency options are exercisable at any time up until expiry, unless told otherwise? Thanks John.

      • John Moffat says

        October 25, 2019 at 9:02 am

        Yes – I should have said American

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