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Leasing

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Leasing

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
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  • Author
    Posts
  • July 5, 2023 at 2:57 pm #687673
    AvatarJenciya
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Walshey company has already decided to accept a project and is now considering how to finance it.
    The asset could be leased over four years at a rental of $36000 per year, Payable at the start of each year. Tax is payable at 30%. One year in arrears. The post-tax cost of borrowing is 10%. Calculate NPV of the leasing option

    Solution :
    Year
    0-3 Rental (36000) DF @10% (i.e., 1+2.487) = (125532)

    My doubt is while calculating the rental value why they have added 1 to the discounting factor to ?

    July 5, 2023 at 5:59 pm #687679
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54838
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is because the first lease payment is payable at the start of the first year, which is time 0.

    The present value of a flow ‘now’ (time 0) is the amount of the flow i.e. 1 x the amount of the flow.

    The 3 year annuity factor gives the PV of flows from time 1 to time 3 and so the PV of all four flows in this case is obtained by multiplying by 1 + the three year annuity factor.

    Have you watched all of my lectures, where this is explained? The lectures are a complete free course for Paper FM and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.

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