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Sir suppose current assets are 10000 financed by over draft 10000 when calculating working capital CA- CL then it will be zero. Same with paybles( short term financing) So can we say working capital only shows capital put in via long term sources?
the overdraft if short-term finance and so the current assets will be all financed by short-term finance.
But when we are calculating the working capital/ net current assets it will be zero so if it is zero then should we understand it as being financed via short term soucres?
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