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June 2013 #3(a)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › June 2013 #3(a)

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • September 30, 2014 at 4:43 pm #202327
    dookhan12
    Member
    • Topics: 76
    • Replies: 61
    • ☆☆

    Hello…

    How did the examiner arrive at the “revised overdraft level” in the answers?

    September 30, 2014 at 8:06 pm #202682
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54749
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am a bit puzzled by your question, because he has shown the workings for it in his answer.

    The net working capital (current assets – current liabilities) is $300,800 and the question says that this is not going to change.

    We are able to calculate receivables, inventories, and payables (because we know receivables days etc.) then so the overdraft is the missing figure to make the net working capital equal to $300,800.

    October 2, 2014 at 2:16 am #203166
    dookhan12
    Member
    • Topics: 76
    • Replies: 61
    • ☆☆

    The way in which you explained what he did now made sense to me as opposed to just copying what the examiner did.

    Thanks! 🙂

    October 2, 2014 at 7:00 am #203189
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54749
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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