Thanks John, bit confused, you say the actual F/O is 22,000 the amount actually absorbed is 22k , so 20k is the budgeted Fixed O/H? hence the over absorption resulting in increase in profit by 2k
No. What I say is that because we have absorbed 22,000 but the overheads we should be budgeting are only 20,000 we will have charged to high an amount. Therefore the profit will be 2,000 less that it should be and therefore we need to increase the profit by 2,000.
I know this Q sounds like one of those you already answered. But I bear with me for a sec. I wrtite down the calculation a tad differently. Let’s assume with start with the direct costs. So our margin would be 35-25 = 10 per unit. No fixed production OH yet included. We get contribution margin 10 * 11 000 = 110 000 Sold during Jan | Went to the inventory 9000 units | 2000 units $ 90 000 | $20 000 Now to arrive at 74 000 of profit for Jan what we do is: Less: 22 000 * 9/11 | 22000 * 2/11 Equals 72 000 | 16 000 And plus over-absorption 2000 74 000 | 16 000
Hence my Q is: Why do we adjust for overabsorption in Jan only for the whole amount? Even though partly Fixed OH are included in the closing inventory. Wht don’t we charge over/under absorption prorata depending on the amount of inventory rolling to the next month?
Image the situation when we only sold 200 units this month and the rest would go to the inventory. It means we would have been left with $1600 before adjustments but then we would boost our profit by $2000 adjustment to $3600. And the inventory would be valued 86400.
Please, correct me at the point where my judjement is flawed
If we produced the budgeted amount each month then the problem would not exist. However from month to month, some months we will produce more and some months we will produce less. So we make the adjustment for the over or under absorption. In the long term it makes no difference – in the long term the total profit will stay the same whether we use absorption or marginal costing.
I get your point. However I was trying to stress another point. I totally understand that if we produced the budgeted amount, there would be no problem at all. And since our production levels will always diverge, I understand that we have to make adjustments. But my Q is why are we adjusting for over/under in one month for the whole amount even though we were left with some goods in the inventory and it seems these goods should bear some of the adjustment? I mean it would seem logical to distribute it this way: Jan for 9/11*2000 and Feb for 2/11 * 2000. Having decreased the cost of inventory, we would end up with profit adjusting up 9/11*2000 in Jan and 2/11*2000 in Feb. Does my Q make sense now? Many thanks in advance. Just struggling with this part. As I personally make adjustments for the companies I advise in exactly this way.
But then we would be valuing inventory at a different unit cost each month. Although certainly we can change the inventory value each month – in management accounting we can do whatever we find most useful – it is more common (and certainly always in the exam) to keep to the same standard cost for inventory throughout the year. Also when we come to variance analysis (later in the course) it makes checking whether we have paid too much or too little for materials etc purchased each month more meaningful. (For financial accounting we have to value the inventory at actual cost, but that is not relevant for management accounting.)
Mr. Moffat , is there any way you could have the subtitles on the video lecture better written as they are wrong & very hard to refer back to when I miss certain words that you say during the lectures.
if the software team could have a look at it , it would be of great help.
At the begining I would like to say that you are a wonderful person and you helped me a lot during preparing for FA.Thank you very much.
I have a doubt about adjustment of over/under absorption. Why in January we don’t take into consideration absorption included in closing inventories? Accually when we calculate cost of sales we deduct absorption of overheads included in closing inventories and there would be 22000 minus 4000 = 18000 and underabsorption?
Hello, In example 1 why have we taken actual fixed overhead at 20000 for calculating over absorption as in question it is mentioned that fixed production overhead are budgeted at 20000 instead of actual?
It is because we only look at the cost of goods that were sold, as we should do.
By all means calculate the cost of the goods sold by taking the opening inventory plus the production less the closing inventory (and you can see it done this way in the printed answer in the lecture notes), but it takes longer 🙂
Hi John,thanks for the lecture. I had a doubt regarding the way we charged fixed selling cost. We had first taken fixed selling cost into account while calculating fixed overhead per unit that’s how we reached the figure of $2 per unit(22000/11000) So why did we deduct it again from the final profit along with variable selling cost? Wouldn’t it be liking charging fixed selling cost of 2000 twice ?
for example 2 since we are calculating the absorption rate for the actual hours, can we use the actual hrs (78000) and actual fixed OH (315000)to solve the OAR or will that change the answer?? and in other examples, is that applicable as well?
sir, thank you so much. but I have a question. why should we use 27 dollar per unit to calculate the value of inventory? or why the fixed average overheads on the inventory is 2 dollar per unit?
We are not preparing financial accounts – we are preparing management accounts. They are usually prepared each month and we don’t want to change the value of inventory each month. We absorb the fixed overheads based on what we expect (on average) to happen, and value the inventory accordingly.
What I have written on the screen is completely correct.
If you want to see how the profit is arrived at showing a full profit statement, then this is of course printed in the lecture notes (in the answers to examples).
Sorry sir I thought you wrote 115000, when instead you wrote 11500u, I thought the u was a zero. This topic was a little tricky, but at the end I got the hang of it!
I’m also very confused Total=256,000 Less inventory=£54,000 Profit will be £402,500-£202,500= 200,000 This is nowhere near the actual profit Somebody help please
The 11,500 units sold in February were the 2,000 units that were in inventory at the start of the month plus the 9,500 units that were produced during the month. The cost of the 2,000 units at the start of the month was $54,000, the cost of the 9,500 units produced during the month was $256,500. So the total cost was $310,500, and the profit is therefore 402,500 – 310,500 = $92,000.
harshalisays
I’m having trouble identifying whether the overheads were over-absorbed or under-absorbed could you explain me that
With regard to example 1 , why are we making an adjustment of £2,000 for the over absorption which relates to the production of 11,000 units when we are trying to calculate the profit figure for only 9,000 units.
If 9,000 units are sold we have absorbed £18,000 of the fixed production cost. Therefore we have under absorbed by £2,000. Thanks
If they produce 11,000 units then the fixed overhead charged (absorbed) will be 11,000 x $2 = $22,000.
(The amount absorbed depends on the production. Although only 9,000 units are sold, the cost of sales is the cost of the 11,000 produced less the cost of the closing inventory of 2,000 units.)
Given that $22,000 has been absorbed, we have over-absorbed by $2,000.
Sir, I would have loved if worked February the long way…I’m not seeing how you arrived at a profit of 92,000, but I’m assuming it has something to do with the opening inventory
calvintai: The difference is that in Example 1 we are asked to prepare budget statements and therefore we are using the budgeted fixed overheads of 20,000. To get the over/under absorption we then compare that with the absorbed overheads (the actual production x the standard fixed overheads per unit).
In Example 2 however, we are not prepared a budget. We know what the actual fixed overheads are (315,500) and we are comparing this with the absorbed overheads (again the actual hours x the standard fixed overheads per hour).
Hi, I am so confused on the Over/Under Absorption. On example 2 Why you use the budgeted fixed production overhead $20,000 as Actual fixed overhead, but you used the $315,500 as the actual fixed overhead? Why not 320,000? It would be so thankful if someone can answer my question.
shazia786 says
Hi John,
Where did the £20,000 actual fixed O/H figure come from?
John Moffat says
It is the budgeted figure as printed in the question.
shazia786 says
Thanks John, bit confused, you say the actual F/O is 22,000 the amount actually absorbed is 22k , so 20k is the budgeted Fixed O/H? hence the over absorption resulting in increase in profit by 2k
John Moffat says
No. What I say is that because we have absorbed 22,000 but the overheads we should be budgeting are only 20,000 we will have charged to high an amount. Therefore the profit will be 2,000 less that it should be and therefore we need to increase the profit by 2,000.
DemyanCherekhovich says
I know this Q sounds like one of those you already answered. But I bear with me for a sec.
I wrtite down the calculation a tad differently.
Let’s assume with start with the direct costs.
So our margin would be 35-25 = 10 per unit. No fixed production OH yet included.
We get contribution margin
10 * 11 000 = 110 000
Sold during Jan | Went to the inventory
9000 units | 2000 units
$ 90 000 | $20 000
Now to arrive at 74 000 of profit for Jan what we do is:
Less:
22 000 * 9/11 | 22000 * 2/11
Equals
72 000 | 16 000
And plus over-absorption 2000
74 000 | 16 000
Hence my Q is:
Why do we adjust for overabsorption in Jan only for the whole amount? Even though partly Fixed OH are included in the closing inventory. Wht don’t we charge over/under absorption prorata depending on the amount of inventory rolling to the next month?
Image the situation when we only sold 200 units this month and the rest would go to the inventory. It means we would have been left with $1600 before adjustments but then we would boost our profit by $2000 adjustment to $3600. And the inventory would be valued 86400.
Please, correct me at the point where my judjement is flawed
John Moffat says
If we produced the budgeted amount each month then the problem would not exist. However from month to month, some months we will produce more and some months we will produce less. So we make the adjustment for the over or under absorption. In the long term it makes no difference – in the long term the total profit will stay the same whether we use absorption or marginal costing.
DemyanCherekhovich says
Hi John.
Thank you for your reply.
I get your point. However I was trying to stress another point. I totally understand that if we produced the budgeted amount, there would be no problem at all. And since our production levels will always diverge, I understand that we have to make adjustments. But my Q is why are we adjusting for over/under in one month for the whole amount even though we were left with some goods in the inventory and it seems these goods should bear some of the adjustment?
I mean it would seem logical to distribute it this way: Jan for 9/11*2000 and Feb for 2/11 * 2000. Having decreased the cost of inventory, we would end up with profit adjusting up 9/11*2000 in Jan and 2/11*2000 in Feb.
Does my Q make sense now?
Many thanks in advance. Just struggling with this part. As I personally make adjustments for the companies I advise in exactly this way.
John Moffat says
But then we would be valuing inventory at a different unit cost each month. Although certainly we can change the inventory value each month – in management accounting we can do whatever we find most useful – it is more common (and certainly always in the exam) to keep to the same standard cost for inventory throughout the year.
Also when we come to variance analysis (later in the course) it makes checking whether we have paid too much or too little for materials etc purchased each month more meaningful.
(For financial accounting we have to value the inventory at actual cost, but that is not relevant for management accounting.)
deviant88 says
I meant “closing inventory value per unit” will remain same when I referred to “closing inventory value”
DhirajACCA says
Mr. Moffat , is there any way you could have the subtitles on the video lecture better written as they are wrong & very hard to refer back to when I miss certain words that you say during the lectures.
if the software team could have a look at it , it would be of great help.
Great lecture as always !
hhornegold says
When you click the subtitles button it states that they are auto generated in brackets, so I am assuming it means these are generated by Youtube?
Flaficzek25 says
Good afternoon Sir
At the begining I would like to say that you are a wonderful person and you helped me a lot during preparing for FA.Thank you very much.
I have a doubt about adjustment of over/under absorption. Why in January we don’t take into consideration absorption included in closing inventories? Accually when we calculate cost of sales we deduct absorption of overheads included in closing inventories and there would be 22000 minus 4000 = 18000 and underabsorption?
kartik123456 says
Hello,
In example 1 why have we taken actual fixed overhead at 20000 for calculating over absorption as in question it is mentioned that fixed production overhead are budgeted at 20000 instead of actual?
danielesteyn says
Good morning
In example 1, why did we not include opening inventory and closing inventory for February calculation?
John Moffat says
It is because we only look at the cost of goods that were sold, as we should do.
By all means calculate the cost of the goods sold by taking the opening inventory plus the production less the closing inventory (and you can see it done this way in the printed answer in the lecture notes), but it takes longer 🙂
Khaula says
Hi John,thanks for the lecture.
I had a doubt regarding the way we charged fixed selling cost.
We had first taken fixed selling cost into account while calculating fixed overhead per unit that’s how we reached the figure of $2 per unit(22000/11000)
So why did we deduct it again from the final profit along with variable selling cost?
Wouldn’t it be liking charging fixed selling cost of 2000 twice ?
John Moffat says
The $2 per unit does not relate to the selling overhead.
It is the fixed production overhead per unit, absorbed at the rate of $20,000/10.000 = $2 per unit.
Khaula says
Thanks!
jijon says
Sir near time stamp 12:56 shouldn’t it be actual fixed OH occurred= 22000 and absorbed O.H =20000?
jijon says
and shouldn’t it be underabsorption?
jijon says
No worries sir I got it.Great lecture btw
japime says
for example 2 since we are calculating the absorption rate for the actual hours, can we use the actual hrs (78000) and actual fixed OH (315000)to solve the OAR or will that change the answer?? and in other examples, is that applicable as well?
jinse says
sir, thank you so much. but I have a question. why should we use 27 dollar per unit to calculate the value of inventory? or why the fixed average overheads on the inventory is 2 dollar per unit?
John Moffat says
We are not preparing financial accounts – we are preparing management accounts. They are usually prepared each month and we don’t want to change the value of inventory each month. We absorb the fixed overheads based on what we expect (on average) to happen, and value the inventory accordingly.
mariamohi says
at 17:16 you said that the sales are 115000 when in the question it says 11500, that is why 92000 is wrong and people are getting confused
John Moffat says
What I have written on the screen is completely correct.
If you want to see how the profit is arrived at showing a full profit statement, then this is of course printed in the lecture notes (in the answers to examples).
People are not getting confused!!
mariamohi says
Sorry sir I thought you wrote 115000, when instead you wrote 11500u, I thought the u was a zero. This topic was a little tricky, but at the end I got the hang of it!
John Moffat says
That’s great – I am pleased you have got the hang of it 🙂
skhan10 says
Very confused how you came to the figure for February
Sales:
£35 x 11,500 = £402,500
Production Cost:
Material 9500 x 12 = 114,000
Labour 9500 x8 = 76,000
Var Prod. 9500 x5 = 47,500
Fixed Prod. 9,500 x2 = 19,000
Total = £256,500
No remaining inventory. 0
Budgeted profit. £146,000
Under Absorb £1,000
Still comes no where close to your figures. ???
skhan10 says
Okay. £54,000 opening inventory from previous month.
John Moffat says
Correct 🙂
isoemisamuel says
I’m also very confused
Total=256,000
Less inventory=£54,000
Profit will be £402,500-£202,500= 200,000
This is nowhere near the actual profit
Somebody help please
John Moffat says
The 11,500 units sold in February were the 2,000 units that were in inventory at the start of the month plus the 9,500 units that were produced during the month.
The cost of the 2,000 units at the start of the month was $54,000, the cost of the 9,500 units produced during the month was $256,500. So the total cost was $310,500, and the profit is therefore 402,500 – 310,500 = $92,000.
harshali says
I’m having trouble identifying whether the overheads were over-absorbed or under-absorbed could you explain me that
John Moffat says
The overheads absorbed is the production multiplied by the standard fixed overhead per unit.
If this is more than the actual overheads then there is over-absorption. If this is less than the actual overheads then there is under-absorption.
matthews96 says
Thanks for clarifying that.
John Moffat says
You are welcome 🙂
matthews96 says
With regard to example 1 , why are we making an adjustment of £2,000 for the over absorption which relates to the production of 11,000 units when we are trying to calculate the profit figure for only 9,000 units.
If 9,000 units are sold we have absorbed £18,000 of the fixed production cost. Therefore we have under absorbed by £2,000. Thanks
John Moffat says
If they produce 11,000 units then the fixed overhead charged (absorbed) will be 11,000 x $2 = $22,000.
(The amount absorbed depends on the production. Although only 9,000 units are sold, the cost of sales is the cost of the 11,000 produced less the cost of the closing inventory of 2,000 units.)
Given that $22,000 has been absorbed, we have over-absorbed by $2,000.
Martin says
Sir, I would have loved if worked February the long way…I’m not seeing how you arrived at a profit of 92,000, but I’m assuming it has something to do with the opening inventory
John Moffat says
The answer in the lecture notes show it the ‘long way’ (although you won’t have time to do it that way in the exam 🙂 )
John Moffat says
You are welcome 🙂
calvintai says
Thank you so much. 🙂
John Moffat says
calvintai: The difference is that in Example 1 we are asked to prepare budget statements and therefore we are using the budgeted fixed overheads of 20,000. To get the over/under absorption we then compare that with the absorbed overheads (the actual production x the standard fixed overheads per unit).
In Example 2 however, we are not prepared a budget. We know what the actual fixed overheads are (315,500) and we are comparing this with the absorbed overheads (again the actual hours x the standard fixed overheads per hour).
calvintai says
Hi, I am so confused on the Over/Under Absorption. On example 2 Why you use the budgeted fixed production overhead $20,000 as Actual fixed overhead, but you used the $315,500 as the actual fixed overhead? Why not 320,000? It would be so thankful if someone can answer my question.
Kerron says
I was thinking the same thing, glad you asked and glad the Tutor cleared it up.