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OpenTuition | ACCA | CIMA
Free ACCA and CIMA on line courses | Free ACCA, CIMA, FIA Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums
sir i dont understand question 5 please explain in simple calculation
The question says that the variance is 2% of budget. Therefore the budget must be 1,250 / 2% = 62,500.
The variance is 1,250 adverse, so the actual fixed overheads are 1,250 less than budget. 62,500 – 1,250 = 61,250.
one few of the chapters in which got 100 % in the test. You taught amazingly. You are a Super Teacher !
can you please give me a more detailed explanation for the last question? I don’t understand it fully.
suppose, budgeted fix O/H= 100x
then , actual O/H will be 98x
fix O/H exp = budgeted-actual
1250=100x-98x
x=625
therefore, actual O/H exp=98*625=61250
i think so too
Good 馃檪