in 3rd que formula given in kaplan book is (1 + (nominal rate / number of compounding periods)) ^ (number of compounding periods) – 1 why here is different

It is not different at all !! (apart from the fact that you have missed off a ‘)’ and should have typed the formula as: (1 + (nominal rate / number of compounding periods)) ^ (number of compounding periods)) – 1

Had the question given the nominal yearly interest rate then you would have divided by 12 to get the nominal monthly rate. However since the question gives the nominal monthly rate as 1.5% (0.015) there is obviously no need to divide by 12. So the answer is ((1 + 0.15)^12) – 1 = 0.1956 (or 19.56%)

Did you not watch the free lectures before attempting the test?

The workings do not assume that anything is $1, and there are no assumptions to be made. The receipt is $6,000 per year in perpetuity and so I really have no idea what you mean.

I have a question on Qn5, I worked it out in a different way. I interpreted the question as 1) get p.v that is received in a year time at the interest of 9.5% : 6,000 x (1+9.5%) = 6,570 2) get p.v of perpetuity using (1) : 6,570 x (1/9.5%) = 69,158

As a non native English, I’m afraid that I might have miss understood the question. I saw your explanation and I clearly understand it. I wonder how I got the same answer in the above way.

I do not know what extra questions you are referring to.

You need to buy a Revision Kit from one of the ACCA approved publishers – they are full of exam standard questions for practice, and practice is vital to passing the exam.

HI sir, I am unable to undestand question no;4 as it says the payment is recieved for 8 yrs time and in the answer you are taking 10 yrs then how You calculated the answer i am not getting it sir …

There is 5% interest for the first 3 years and so we multiply by 1.05 three times. There is then 6% interest for the remaining 5 years and so we multiply by 1.06 five times.

So the amount in 8 years is 600 x (1.05)^3 x (1.06)^5.

(Did you watch the free lectures before attempting the test? 🙂 )

Question 5 i followed the formula shown in your lecture on perpetuity, however in your lecture you didnt add on the original amount when you got the answer 41667 from what i remember? Question 5 they have added that back? Which is the correct method?

The formula for a perpetuity apples when the perpetuity starts in 1 years time (as I explain in the lecture). In this question the perpetuity starts immediately and so we therefore need to add on the amount received at time 0.

Mohit90 says

in 3rd que formula given in kaplan book is

(1 + (nominal rate / number of compounding periods)) ^ (number of compounding periods) – 1

why here is different

John Moffat says

It is not different at all !! (apart from the fact that you have missed off a ‘)’ and should have typed the formula as:

(1 + (nominal rate / number of compounding periods)) ^ (number of compounding periods)) – 1

Had the question given the nominal yearly interest rate then you would have divided by 12 to get the nominal monthly rate. However since the question gives the nominal monthly rate as 1.5% (0.015) there is obviously no need to divide by 12.

So the answer is ((1 + 0.15)^12) – 1 = 0.1956 (or 19.56%)

Did you not watch the free lectures before attempting the test?

Sashmittha says

Sir for the 5th question the working it is assumed FV as $1 nah cant we assume it as $100?

John Moffat says

The workings do not assume that anything is $1, and there are no assumptions to be made. The receipt is $6,000 per year in perpetuity and so I really have no idea what you mean.

Sashmittha says

Sir for the 4th question why is (600×(1+0.05)^(3))+(600×(1+0.06)^(5)) wrong??

John Moffat says

Because what you have written would have $600 being invested twice. It is only invested once and earns interest for 8 years.

Did you watch the free lectures before attempting the test?

yusra97 says

sir for question 1.. if em trying to use the annuity table my answer is coming wrong?

3000 x 8.559=17118

but with formula it’s 3000x 1/(1+0.08)15=945

John Moffat says

This is not an annuity. An annuity is when the amount is received every year, which is not the case here.

ppipap says

Dear Sir,

I have a question on Qn5, I worked it out in a different way.

I interpreted the question as

1) get p.v that is received in a year time at the interest of 9.5% : 6,000 x (1+9.5%) = 6,570

2) get p.v of perpetuity using (1) : 6,570 x (1/9.5%) = 69,158

As a non native English, I’m afraid that I might have miss understood the question.

I saw your explanation and I clearly understand it.

I wonder how I got the same answer in the above way.

Thank you!

John Moffat says

What you have done is fine – it is not a coincidence 🙂

dalesp8 says

Hi John,

Could you explain how to do Q2 using the formula A(1-(1/(1+r)^n/r

John Moffat says

I show how to use the formula in my free lectures.

But why on earth do you want to use the formula anyway when you are given the discount factors in the exam?!!

Razler says

Can u please email me the extra ma questions with answers

John Moffat says

I do not know what extra questions you are referring to.

You need to buy a Revision Kit from one of the ACCA approved publishers – they are full of exam standard questions for practice, and practice is vital to passing the exam.

pakistan15 says

HI sir, I am unable to undestand question no;4 as it says the payment is recieved for 8 yrs time and in the answer you are taking 10 yrs then how You calculated the answer i am not getting it sir …

John Moffat says

No – I am not taking 10 years.

There is 5% interest for the first 3 years and so we multiply by 1.05 three times.

There is then 6% interest for the remaining 5 years and so we multiply by 1.06 five times.

So the amount in 8 years is 600 x (1.05)^3 x (1.06)^5.

(Did you watch the free lectures before attempting the test? 🙂 )

rupalshah says

Hi Sir,

I am unable to understand in question 3 where its says what is annual rate of credit card?

as per the lecture formula is =P(1+r)n I got wrong in a practice question as i did (1+0.015)12 why I have to -1 please help me with this.

Thank you

John Moffat says

1 + the annual rate = (1 + the monthly rate) ^12

I do explain the reason for this in the lecture (and this is the formula I give in the lecture also).

fiz90 says

Hi John,

Question 5 i followed the formula shown in your lecture on perpetuity, however in your lecture you didnt add on the original amount when you got the answer 41667 from what i remember? Question 5 they have added that back? Which is the correct method?

John Moffat says

The formula for a perpetuity apples when the perpetuity starts in 1 years time (as I explain in the lecture). In this question the perpetuity starts immediately and so we therefore need to add on the amount received at time 0.

mohamed2000 says

dear sir. Why 6000 is added to the 63158 to get the final answer in question 5?

John Moffat says

Because the first receipt is immediate (i.e. time 0) and the present value of an immediate 6,000 is 6,000.

Multiplying by 1/r discounts a perpetuity where the first receipt is in 1 years time, as explained in my free lectures.

pumpkin says

how is it that last receipt is in 10 years? it said receivable in 8 years in the question.

John Moffat says

I assume you are referring to question 2? (In future please do say which question you are asking about 🙂 )

The question says there are 8 receipts, but that the first receipt is in 3 years time.

So the second receipt is in 4 years time, the third receipt is in 5 years time, and so on. The 8th receipt will be in 10 years time.

The wording of this question is standard for the exam (and is the wording I used in the examples in my free lectures).

mmandangu says

Don’t worry sir lv managed to work it out.

John Moffat says

I am pleased that you have worked it out 🙂

mmandangu says

Dear Sir

I don’t understand the answer to question 4. If l multiply all those numbers m getting 10017 as the answer. Please help.

Melissa