Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition
Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams
Specially for OpenTuition students: 20% off BPP Books for ACCA & CIMA exams – Get your BPP Discount Code >>
September 22, 2022 at 4:24 pm
You don’t put 20000 * 100 in brackets prior to – sign. This is like grammatical error in maths.
February 12, 2022 at 1:46 pm
A thousand thanks from Afghanistan to OpenTuition and Mr. Chris.
Ps. Sir, say that the chapter is easy so we could fool ourselves and think it is easy. Then we can learn better. 🙂
July 12, 2021 at 1:32 pm
HI, My question is the following,
Why we need effective rate at all. I understand calculations but have no idea why we are doing it like this.
May 21, 2021 at 11:43 am
I have a quick question on the example 2 from Chapter 11 lectures in relating to financial liabilities. What confuses me is that at 13:23 we can see B/F+ Financial Cost – Coupon =C/F. I am not quite sure why the financial cost needs to be added onto the money that we received from issuing shares. Who is liable to the financial costs here? Thanks.
December 25, 2020 at 5:35 am
This chapter (Financial Instruments) also contain a topic called Factoring of Receivables. May I know why haven’t you posted a lecture on that? Thanks.
August 8, 2020 at 8:11 pm
why we need effective rate of Interest? What is the use in reality?
February 22, 2020 at 10:32 am
Hi these videos are great, thanks a lot!
I know we don’t need this but can you please explain how to calculate the IRR in the example given in this video?
I have tried the following: total inflows divided by outflows (2,260,000/1,900,000), raise that to the power of (1/4) ie 0.25 because there are 4 time periods, then subtract 1.
That all gives me an incorrect rate of 4.43%.
What am I doing wrong?
July 2, 2020 at 2:33 pm
Calculating IRR considering the premium and also costs is challenging to do without Excel.
EIR can be calculated as a rate at which sum of discounted CF’s would be equivalent to Amortised cost at the recognition date. With excel it’s basically linking formulas to EIR and changing EIR until the sum of CF’s would be close to AC on Y0.
40,000/(1+4.58%)^1 = 38,248
40,000/(1+4.58%)^2 = 36,573
40,000/(1+4.58%)^3 = 34,971
2,140,000/(1+4.58%)^4 = 1,789,037
Summed up to 1,898,829 (just 1,171 difference from 1,900,000)
Or EIR can be found as a result of several iterations, by taking two potential rates, calculating NPV for both, calculating EIR as r1+(NPV1/(NPV1-NPV2))*(r2-r1), then applying it to find Amortised cost. And then narrowing the possible r1 and r2 until Amortised cost with EIR will be equal to Carrying amount at the recognition date.
July 20, 2019 at 11:54 am
really you are the best- I was excepted from F7 and going through SBR, I thought no I am done for on this one. then I went back to ur lectures on F7 and life came back to earth. would have just give up on SBR without ur superb lectures. you the best. now I can go back studying SBR knowing all the terminologies.
November 9, 2019 at 3:50 pm
best teacher ever
June 13, 2019 at 5:02 am
July 28, 2018 at 11:52 am
Why we take redeemable rate 1.05 instead of 0.05?
July 28, 2018 at 12:51 pm
Is it not because it is redeemable at 5% above the par value, so we are adding 5% to the original amount and hence 1 plus 0.05?
June 8, 2018 at 10:42 pm
June 10, 2018 at 7:32 am
Thanks, glad you’re enjoying the videos.
You must be logged in to post a comment.