Hi guys, I don’t understand why in W5 the answer states that:.. ” The bond is classified as at FVTPL and therefore the loss would normally be taken to equity…”
In my opinion, the loss should be recognised in P/L since it is FA at FVTPL. Pls explain why? Tks alot!
Pls show me the way to approach Q50M efficiently. I finf it difficult to deal with this. OT P3 forum has some video for Q50M quite intersting but P1 not yet. Who can help me? Tks all!