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Why don’t companies or their auditors calculate Goodwill in FOREIGN CURRENCY at the DOA and then yearly translate and see the Gain/Loss accordingly?
If we have enough info @ EXAM to calculate Goodwill in foreign currency, is it OK to do so?
you’ve told to translate everything in SOFP at closing rate, in BPP kit ‘Pre acqs’ are translated at closing rate, but ‘post acq’ is translated somehow using beta(B) value. I mean they have beta sign in the rate column..:?
E.g. Dinar Rate. $m
Post acq 8 . B 30
@c0olmat3, Oh got it, its the balancing figure, inclusive of Exchange Diffs.
Well, there are many techniques in translating, all are allowed i guess.
Either use closing rate(as you did);
Using balcing figs to dtrmine post acq(bpp);
Or using avg rate fr post acq(examiner answer).
9298 is the NCi’s share of goodwill.
21695 x 30/70
@c0olmat3, how ?? =( it says = ” our share of 70% ” , how is that nci’s share of goodwill????? please help
Where did 9298 came from?
@azzal, I may be wrong because I’m answering this from memory, but isn’t 9,298 the nci’s share of the goodwill impairment? If it isn’t, post again and I’ll look the question up to give you a definitive answer
hi, the question in this example has different information to the question he is working out make it a lttle hard to follow. please fix the notes. thanx
HI MIKE THANK YOU VERY MUCH FOR THE VIDEOS. THR NEW VIDEOS ARE ALSO GREAT. THANKS TO YOU AND YOUR OPEN TUITION TEAM VERY MUCH.
am unable to play this one,what sould i do? Others are okay
Look for this lecture here: http://tv.opentuition.com/ maybe it will work there
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