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What difference it will make if nci in kristina in proportionate basis? Still then 30% of 4000 will be deducted from fv of nci
@MikeLittle In this above example 4…. Why the INCI share of the investment in Liene is not deducted from Liene’s NCI calculation (but from Kristine’s NCI )as you did in example 3 ? Both give the same results, but i do not understand the reason.which treatement should i follow now
For the answer to Example 4 here, how come we didn’t put the values of the NCI’s into Working 2.
For example we knew that the value for Liene was proportional, and we new that at the date of acquisition the value of the shares were $1.70 so could have calculated the NCI in Kristina from that?
@curiousmeerkat, Because there’s no need to – the nci in Liene is proportional – so the only goodwill is attributable to either Kristina or to Anda.
The share value in Kristina may have nothing to do with the directors’ valuation of the nci – BE CAREFUL!!! The nci value is not always going to be exactly the number of nci shares multiplied by the market value of those shares
@MikeLittle, thank you. I thought that the value may have been a ‘trick’ like there tends to be in exam questions. From now on I will ignore the share price as a possible valuation of the NCI unless it explicitly states that it is.
@curiousmeerkat, ok, you’re welcome
Ok, you’re welcome
Mr Mike Little,
for example 5, i do understand the proportion of Liene’s dividend to Kristina (of $40,000) and to Anda (of $8,000)..but then again, what is given to Kristina by Liene (ie dividend), it should have percentage (of 70%) to the Anda as well..that means Anda will have another div receivable from L through K at $2,800 (70% of $40k)..i need clarification on this..tq
@mizanm, No, Anda receives her 8% of Liene’s dividend from her direct investment in the sub-subsidiary. Kristina receives her share of the Liene dividend too.
Ok, that deals fully with the Liene dividend
Now declare and account for the Kristina dividend payable.
Thanks again Mr Little. Great help!
on working 1, were did the 10/15 come from i dont seem to see it in the question.
2 questions please:
1. Why the INCI share of the investment in Liene is not deducted from Liene’s NCI calculation as in example 3 but from Kristine’s NCI calculation? Both give the same results, but i do not understand the reason.
2. When calculating the goodwill in Liene should we split it in 2 parts (A in L and K in L) or could we just make a combined calculation? It also gives the same results.
1. As for example 3, the NCI share of investment in V should be deducted in working 4A NCI (20% in D)..so it will look the same like in example 4 where the NCI share of investment in L was deducted in (30% in K)..in other words it will be deducted while doing NCI for Subsidiary…not sub-subsidiary..still the TOTAL NCI will be the same if you make it the other way around
2. Yes, we can. In BPP, the goodwill is presented in a combined calculation. So if that’s followed..it will be (A in K) and (A and K in L). and yeah, the TOTAL GW at the end will be the same…either you combine..or as Mr Little’s..
I hope that explains..and pls correct me if i’m wrong
Not understand why should minus out INCI share of investment in sub- sub subsidiary $120,000 in working 4?
would you please explain to me when calculating working 4 NCI for lianne why didn’t you include the impairment as in 40% of 0.4
@hamda, i think it is because NCI has no goodwill for Liene as you can see in working 2. So there is nothing to impair unlike Kristina where they gave an NCI goodwill of 15,000 in the question. That’s how i understand it
@sodiqlawal, its because the goodwill is valued on a proportional basis therefore the cost of the subsid and the NCI FV at DOA will always be equal resulting in no goodwill. I just remember it that if they say goodwill valued on proportional basis then there will be no NCI goodwill.
hope this makes sense
Impairment on Kristina goodwill should be 14 and 3 coming to 17 ie 20% of 70k and 20% of 15k
nice stuff Mr Little keep it up..
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