1. avatar says

    Dear John Sir,

    In our BPP revision kit under investment appraisal we have a question (Q 49) involving advance annuity (starting at T0) and their corporation tax consequences. could you please explain how to deal with such a question.

    Thank you

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      Please ask this question in the Ask the Tutor Forum for Paper F9, and not as a comment on a lecture about something completely different!

      Have you watched the lectures on investment appraisal, because dealing with annuities starting at a time different from time 1 and dealing with tax are all dealt with (and lease and buy is a particular example of an annuity starting at time 0).

  2. avatar says

    Good day sir,
    Thank you for the lectures,based on the example in the lecture notes,can i use the 12m sales figure to solve the question which gives me approx. the discount to be offered?

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      The $12M is not relevant. The reason is that although we might offer a discount, we can not force customers to pay early and take advantage of it. We might hope we will (and therefore we might offer the discount) but again, we have no idea how many of the customers will take it.

  3. avatar says

    First of all thanks for the lectures, they are very useful and valuable material.
    Could you please clarify which method to use in order to calculate the annual cost of discount taking example 1?
    -your method of 4% / 96% * 6=25% or
    -(1+4%/96%)^6-1=27.8% as written in Kaplan F9 Essential Text published in 2012


  4. Profile photo of aishaasad says

    Please explain me the meaning of the following line
    Finding a total level of credit which can be offered is a matter of finding the least costly balance between enticing customers, whose use of credit entails considerable costs, and refusing opportunities for profitable sales
    Thnx in a anticipation

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      What they are trying to say is the following:

      If you allow customers to take credit then you have the cost of chasing those who don’t pay, you lose interest while you are waiting for the money, and there is more risk of people not paying. The more credit you allow the more these costs will be.

      However, if you don’t allow customer to take credit then you risk them going to another supplier who does give them credit and therefore you risk losing sales.

      Hope that makes sense :-)

  5. avatar says

    Hi Mr Moffat,, Sir I was going through a question in the pilot paper Ulnad Co,, and I noticed one thing,,we are told that the sales figure is $6M and it increased by 5% and also they offered a discount of 1.5% in which 30% of customers took the discount offered,, in calculating new receivable days 46.5 days I got it, however the new sales figure I got stuck,, the answer module calculated $6M × 1.05= $6.3M,, my question is why they didnt subtract the discount which will be 6.3 – ( 30% × 1.5% × 6.3M) =6271650 so that the sales figure is less the discount offered,, so that the new receivable will be 46.5/365 × 6271650 rather than 46.5/365 × 6.3M,,,

      • avatar says

        Thank you very much Mr moffat,,, I really really appreciate to the awesome videos and to your timely response for the ealier questions,, today is f9 examination hop it will be good ,, once again I express my gratitude for everything. Have a blessed day

  6. avatar says

    Great lecture!
    and, I do think this method is far more easier to understand the method given in Kaplan; annual cost of discount = (1+discount / amount left to pay)^no. of periods – 1. But, will the examiner give marks for this method?

    Exam questions are tougher than the questions we practice here, but it;s the theory we need to understand. When I sat for F5 last June, I went through only Opentuition lecture Videos and one past paper, but the understanding I got by going through the lectures got me enough marks to pass the exam comfortably. So thanks alot sir!

  7. avatar says

    Could somebody help me why cost of discount is 4/96*100 and for year calculation times by 12/2.
    I am just slightly confused as to why the 12/2 is used , I hear John saying in the lecture , that perhaps the receivable is paid in 2 months and I see the 12/2 , but in the actual wording of the question , it says they are considering a 4% discount if paid in one month, would this then mean a 4/96*100*12 giving a cost of discount of 50% ? … may look silly but I need to get it right in my head thanking you ..

      • avatar says

        Thankyou John, makes perfect sense to me now but I just couldn’t see that when I looked at it , So it is the saving in time , 3 months they were paying and now paying in 1 month … Thank you

  8. avatar says

    Dear John, I ‘d like to ask about the difference between your approach and Kaplan’s text book on annual cost of discount. Kaplan gives a formula which annual cost of discount = (1+discount / amount left to pay)^no. of periods – 1. The results are slightly different though. Is there any problem in the exams if we use your logic ???

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      Strictly, what Kaplan writes is correct. However on the (only two) occasions that there has been a simple discount in the exam (as a tiny part of a question), the examiner has accepted the ‘quick’ way, even though it is not strictly accurate.

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