Comments

  1. avatar says

    Hi Sir,

    I am not able to understand why we discount our cashflows ??
    is it only because the value of money decreases with time due to inflation or what other factors cause us to discount a future inflow or outflows ?
    and what causes inflation ??
    please help.

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      The reason for discounting is not because of inflation. It is purely to account for the fact that if money is invested in a project then it costs interest – the money used has to be borrowed and there will be interest payable. Even if the company already has the cash, thr shareholders are entitled to have the cash as dividend and by using it to finance the project they are effectively borrowing it from shareholders.
      If you are still unsure then do watch the Paper F2 lectures on investment appraisal where this is explained (and ‘proved’).

      • avatar says

        Thank you sir, ur answer did explain it but i ll watch F2 lecture because i need to learn it in depth. thank u for the prompt reply. :)
        your lectures really simplify everything.

  2. avatar says

    Hello Sir,

    At the end of the video you mention getting the cash flows can be difficult, I am currently attempting a question in which the cash flows are not given and you must sort out the relevant and irrelevant information. You are only given a profit projection table, I was wondering if you could point me in the right direction or if you can link me to a video that might help me as I am having no luck finding one.

    Kind Regards

    Brian

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      I am very surprised that you could not find a lecture!

      The next chapter in the free Lecture Notes (which you need if you are watching the lectures) is called ‘Relevant cash flows for DCF’ and if you look at the listing of lectures there are 5 lectures on this chapter – all called ‘relevant cash flows’ going through the examples in the notes and bringing in ultimately all of the different problems that can arise.

  3. Profile photo of chandhini says

    Hello sir,
    I am still a lil stumped when it comes to timing of the tax benefits. Could you please tell me if I am right with respect to the following?
    1) If the machine is bought on the first day of t0 and tax is paid a year in arrears, then the first Capital Allowance (CA) benefit accrues in t2
    2) If the machine is bought on the last day of t0 and tax is paid a year in arrears, the the CA benefit occurs in t1
    What if the machine is bought on the first day of t0 and tax is paid in the same year?! Will the CA be part of t0 cash flows?
    And what if the machine is bought on the last day of t0 and tax is paid in the same year? When will the CA benefits accrue?
    This is one area that has been troubling me!
    Will be indebted if you could sort this out!
    Thanks a ton, and YOU ARE AMAZING!!!

    • Profile photo of John Moffat says

      t0 is a point in time – not a year. You mean year 0, year 1 etc.

      1) If the machine is bought on the first day of t0 and tax is paid a year in arrears, then the first Capital Allowance (CA) benefit accrues in t2
      2) If the machine is bought on the last day of an accounting period and tax is paid a year in arrears, the the CA benefit occurs at time 1

      If the machine is bought on the first day of an accounting period and tax is paid in the same year the CA benefit occurs at time 1 (the CAs are not calculated until the end of the year, which is in 1 years time)

      If the machine is bought on the last day of an accounting period and tax is paid in the same year the CA benefit occurs at time 0.

      • Profile photo of chandhini says

        So sir, if the machine has a life of 4 years, and it is bought on the last day of the accounting year, and tax is paid in a year in arrears, why do we consider 5 years of tax benefit?!
        Could you please elaborate situations in which we will consider an extra year of CA benefit?
        Thanks :(

      • Profile photo of John Moffat says

        If you buy on the last day of an accounting period, then you get capital allowances for that year and for each of the four years that you are using it.

        However it is unlikely that you will ever have this situation except in a lease and buy question

      • Profile photo of chandhini says

        So,
        If an asset has a life of 4 years, is bought on the first day of the year, and tax is paid in a year in arrears, then we will consider tax benefits from the years y2-y5.

        If it has a life of 4 years, is bought on the last day of the year, tax is paid in arrears, then tax benefits accrue from y1-y5

        If it has a life of 4 years, is bought on the first day of the year, tax is paid in the same year, then CA benefit accrues from y1-y4

        If it has a life of 4 years, is bought on the last day of the year, tax is paid in the same year, then CA benefit accrues from y0-y4
        Am I right?
        Please sort this out! Thanks a lot in advance!

  4. avatar says

    Mr Moffat
    I was trying to do Guestion 9 Ballet plc from the practice questions. I would like to know for a question like this how will i know that the increased costs production starts in the first year and also why the capital allowances start in year 0. I would also like to know why was tax not calculated but instead full capital allowances and tax savings were included.
    Thank you

      • Profile photo of John Moffat says

        The question says that currently production is 10,000 tonnes but that it is growing at 5% p.a.. This implies that next year (i.e. year 1 in the appraisal) the production will be 5% higher (and then 5% higher again in year 2 and so on).

        The writing down allowance is only there as part of workings (to calculate the tax saving) – it has not been included in calculating the net cash flow. So, for example, the net cash flow at time 1 is 0.250 – 0.050 – 0.315 + 0.083 = (0.032)
        Tax has been calculated – but as in my lectures it has been calculated in two parts – the tax on the operating flows (at time 2, 0.315 x 33% = 0.104); and the tax saved on the capital allowances (at time 1, 0.250 x 33% = 0.083).

        Finally, the question says that the machine will be in working order immediately prior to the next financial year. This implies that it was bought in the current financial year, and so capital allowances will be given now – time 0 – and the benefit of the tax saving will be one year later i.e. at time 1.

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