Foreign Exchange Risk Management (part f)

Comments

1. irum says:

   March 16, 2013 at 1:41 pm

   why we multiplying here instead of divide(800,000*1.5631)…can anybody help me plz

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   • johnmoffat says:

     March 17, 2013 at 9:28 am

     The lecture explains at the very beginning.

     If 1 GBP = 1.5631 $’s, then 800,000 GBP must be equal to 800,000 x 1.5631 $’s.

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     • irum says:

       March 17, 2013 at 2:36 pm

       Thanks sir john …i did all the lecture from a to f .and now i understand all things in depth.
       Thanks alot for these great lecture.

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2. gts7 says:

   October 25, 2012 at 8:47 am

   Very clear and well presented
   Well done

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3. nafsika says:

   November 22, 2011 at 9:01 pm

   Great lecture! Thank you!

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4. qamber hussain says:

   November 20, 2011 at 1:14 pm

   so, nice. .
   but the old version is better. . it stops while buffering , the old one didn’t … i never had any problem with that. But still all is wel .

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