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ACCA F9 lectures ACCA F9 notes
March 22, 2015 at 7:29 pm
Hello Mr Moffat
Just wanted to mention that this lecture is a repetition of part d of foreign exchange risk management.
John Moffat says
March 22, 2015 at 7:33 pm
No it is not. It must be a problem at your end.
Go to the support page (the link is above) and you might find a solution there.
November 29, 2014 at 1:51 pm
would this form of questions come in exam
November 29, 2014 at 1:57 pm
I make it very clear in the lecture and in the course notes that you cannot be asked calculations on futures and that my little example is simply to explain the principle.
However, I also make it very clear that you can be asked to explain how futures work – that is why I go through the basic example.
November 6, 2014 at 2:12 pm
as per the new paper structure it is possible to get mcq questions (numerical) on futures, options and swaps?
November 6, 2014 at 4:36 pm
Although the structure has changed, the syllabus has not.
Numerical questions can not be asked on futures and options (and nor on swaps, which strictly is not in the syllabus at all).
November 6, 2014 at 12:26 am
Great lecture sir! Now I can start gambing 😀
October 10, 2014 at 1:57 pm
I have enjoyed every other chapter in the study text and your lectures are fantastic Mr Moffat! But this chapter is killing me! I keep yawning! 😀 😀
I need matchsticks in my eyes! lol
October 10, 2014 at 4:11 pm
Sorry for boring you
December 4, 2013 at 10:32 am
hi everyone. i just finished this part of the lesson, and i did not understand why the chosen exchange rate was 1.5831 for spot rate instead of 1.5726, as this goes with selling dollars and the study case was referring to buying dollars for paying thank you
December 4, 2013 at 1:32 pm
I assume that you are referring to example 8, in which case nobody is buying dollars.
In this example, R is in the US and is buying £’s (and therefore selling $’s)
March 16, 2013 at 1:41 pm
why we multiplying here instead of divide(800,000*1.5631)…can anybody help me plz
March 17, 2013 at 9:28 am
The lecture explains at the very beginning.
If 1 GBP = 1.5631 $’s, then 800,000 GBP must be equal to 800,000 x 1.5631 $’s.
March 17, 2013 at 2:36 pm
Thanks sir john …i did all the lecture from a to f .and now i understand all things in depth.
Thanks alot for these great lecture.
October 25, 2012 at 8:47 am
Very clear and well presented
November 22, 2011 at 9:01 pm
Great lecture! Thank you!
qamber hussain says
November 20, 2011 at 1:14 pm
so, nice. .
but the old version is better. . it stops while buffering , the old one didn’t … i never had any problem with that. But still all is wel .
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