ACCA F7 December 2009 Question 1 Pandar

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  1. Avatar of hasanali95 hasanali95 says:
    May 3, 2013 at 8:57 pm

    Sir in the bpp kit the goodwill is 113900,pls help asap

  2. Avatar of c0712 c0712 says:
    November 26, 2012 at 10:10 am

    Dear Mike,

    In this lecture, the carrying value of the investment in associate (to be included in Con S o FP) is calculated as cost + share of post acq LOSS. (starts from 21:30 in the lecture) But in the course notes, it’s calculated as cost + share of post acq RET’D EARS. (Chapter 11, Page 64)

    I’m confused about the difference.

    Thank you!

    • Avatar of MikeLittle MikeLittle says:
      November 26, 2012 at 11:01 am

      @c0712, The line “Our share of post acquisition…..” would hopefully be our share of post acquisition profits. But in the unfortunate situation where an associate has made a post acquisition loss, then that’s the base figure from which we compute our share.

      If I were to say ” ….plus our share of the Associate’s post acquisition results …” would that eliminate your confusion?

  3. Avatar of verlynwilliams verlynwilliams says:
    November 20, 2012 at 10:44 am

    Can you explain why the profit for the year is not taken away from retained earning and then calculate the portion of profit thereafter for retained earnings?

  4. Avatar of omerchamp omerchamp says:
    November 10, 2012 at 6:44 am

    well sir i think you are the best teacher ever

  5. Avatar of yojana yojana says:
    October 30, 2012 at 3:57 pm

    The answers for the exam paper and the one that is shown in this lecture is different. G/will in the answer paper is 98.8 whereas u’ve calculated it to be 114.9. There are other differences as well. Can you pls tell me which one to follow? Thanks!!

    • Avatar of MikeLittle MikeLittle says:
      November 10, 2012 at 10:27 am

      @yojana, Hi, the answers which I recorded were from the questions which were in the Kaplan exam kit. Kaplan are unfortunately not authorised to publish the exam questions in precisely the same form as the exam.

      I had not realised at the time of recording that the questions I was answering were not EXACTLY the exam questions.

  6. Avatar of ryanpieblock ryanpieblock says:
    May 31, 2012 at 5:30 pm

    can i knw why we don’t adjust the profit (when calculating the share of NCI for the interest expense paid to the parent ….. koz its is not a realised expense…. like an unrealised profit…. is it the concept of prudence??????

  7. Avatar of jeankirk jeankirk says:
    May 20, 2012 at 5:44 pm

    I cant get the sound on podcasts – is there a problem with the site?? (sound working for other things) ?

    Thanks

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